Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a new prescription for omeprazole is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication before meals.
• B. I should take this medication with an antacid.
• C. I should avoid taking this medication at bedtime.
• D. I should take this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking omeprazole before meals is important as it improves the medication's effectiveness in reducing gastric acid production. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as it can interfere with its absorption. Option C is incorrect because omeprazole is usually recommended to be taken before breakfast, not at bedtime. Option D is incorrect as omeprazole is generally taken on an empty stomach, at least 1 hour before a meal.

2. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?

• A. Constipation
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Fever
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate of 20/min
• B. Oxygen saturation of 93%
• C. Pain level of 2 on a scale of 0 to 10
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a blood pressure drop or other signs of morphine overdose should be reported, especially when using a PCA pump. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and do not indicate an immediate concern related to morphine administration.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

5. Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation?

• A. Warfarin
• B. Digoxin
• C. Aspirin
• D. Lisinopril

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage atrial fibrillation by controlling heart rate. While Warfarin is used to prevent blood clots, it is not primarily used for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation. Aspirin is not the first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation and is generally not recommended for rhythm control. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, but it is not typically prescribed as the primary medication for managing atrial fibrillation.

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