Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?

• A. Dysphagia
• B. Hoarseness
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught by a nurse. What nutrition information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals.
• B. Rest before meals if experiencing dyspnea.
• C. Consume about six small meals a day.
• D. Consume high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While some of the other options may be helpful, the most appropriate advice for a client with COPD is to consume high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying. Avoiding fluids just before and during meals can help prevent bloating, resting before meals can assist with dyspnea, and having several small meals a day can help reduce bloating. However, fibrous foods can lead to gas production, causing abdominal bloating and potentially worsening shortness of breath. Increasing calorie and protein intake is essential to prevent malnourishment. It is also important to avoid excessive carbohydrate intake, as it can increase carbon dioxide production and the risk of acidosis in COPD patients.

4. A nurse is caring for a client post-myocardial infarction (MI). What is the priority assessment for this client?

• A. Monitoring urine output
• B. Checking blood glucose levels
• C. Assessing for chest pain
• D. Monitoring electrolyte levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing for chest pain is crucial in post-MI clients as it can indicate complications such as reinfarction or ischemia.

5. A client has a pleural chest tube. Which action should the nurse take to ensure safe use of this equipment?

• A. Never strip the tubing to maintain patency.
• B. Secure tubing junctions with tape to prevent accidental disconnections.
• C. Set wall suction at the level recommended by the device manufacturer.
• D. Keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system is interrupted.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ensure safe use of a pleural chest tube, the nurse should keep padded clamps at the bedside for use if the drainage system becomes dislodged or is interrupted. Stripping the tubing should never be done to maintain patency. Tubing junctions should be secured with tape, not clamps. Wall suction should be set at the level recommended by the device manufacturer, not the provider.

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