Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the professional check first?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Serum calcium level
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client presenting with a new onset of confusion, checking the blood glucose level first is crucial as hypoglycemia can cause confusion and is easily correctable. Addressing hypoglycemia promptly is essential to prevent further complications.

3. During a call to the on-call physician about a client who had a hysterectomy 2 days ago & has unrelieved pain from prescribed narcotic medication, which statement is part of the SBAR format for communication?

• A. I suggest ordering a different pain medication.
• B. This client has allergies to morphine & codeine.
• C. Dr. Smith does not prefer nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory meds.
• D. The client had a vaginal hysterectomy 2 days ago.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: SBAR is a structured form of communication used in healthcare settings. It stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation. In this scenario, informing the on-call physician about the client's allergies to morphine & codeine falls under the 'Background' component of the SBAR format, making choice B the correct answer.

4. A client who experienced a femur fracture 8 hr ago now reports sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Provide high-flow oxygen.
• B. Check the client for a positive Chvostek's sign.
• C. Administer an IV vasopressor medication.
• D. Monitor the client for headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action is to provide high-flow oxygen to the client. Sudden onset dyspnea and severe chest pain can be indicative of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening emergency. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation and stabilizes the client's condition. Checking for Chvostek's sign, administering IV vasopressors, or monitoring for a headache are not the immediate priorities in this critical situation.

5. A nurse cares for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who has been prescribed continuous oxygen therapy at home. Which statement indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?

• A. I plan to wear my oxygen when I exercise & feel short of breath.
• B. I will use my portable oxygen when grilling burgers in the backyard.
• C. I plan to use cotton balls to cushion the oxygen tubing on my ears.
• D. I will only smoke while I am wearing my oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cotton balls can decrease pressure ulcers from the oxygen tubing. Continuous oxygen orders mean the client should wear the oxygen at all times. Oxygen fuels a fire. Wearing oxygen while grilling & smoking increases the risk for fire.

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