a nurse is teaching a client who has tuberculosis and is to start medication therapy with isoniazid rifampin and pyrazinamide which of the following i
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Nursing Elites

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1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients on intravenous heparin therapy. Which lab value possibly indicates a serious side effect has occurred?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low platelet count, as seen in choice B, is concerning as it could indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of blood clotting, potentially causing severe complications. Monitoring platelet counts is crucial during heparin therapy to promptly identify and manage this adverse effect.

3. During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.

4. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

5. A client in the late stage of inhalation anthrax requires a plan of care. What is appropriate to include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the late stage of inhalation anthrax, respiratory support is crucial due to the potential for respiratory failure. Providing oxygen therapy and maintaining airway patency are essential components of care to improve oxygenation and support respiratory function. Placing the client in droplet isolation is not necessary as inhalation anthrax is not transmitted from person to person through respiratory droplets. Administering antihypertensive medications is not indicated in the treatment of inhalation anthrax. Monitoring for ascites is not a priority in the late stage of inhalation anthrax.

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