Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min now has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min.
• B. Administer a bronchodilator via nebulizer.
• C. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• D. Assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's mental status and level of consciousness. This assessment helps determine if the decreased respiratory rate is affecting the client's oxygenation. By evaluating the client's mental status and level of consciousness, the nurse can promptly identify any signs of respiratory distress or hypoxia, allowing for timely intervention and appropriate adjustments to the oxygen therapy or other treatments.

3. A client is hospitalized with a second episode of pulmonary embolism (PE). Recent genetic testing reveals the client has an alteration in the gene CYP2C19. What action by the nurse is best?

• A. Instruct the client to eliminate all vitamin K from the diet.
• B. Prepare preoperative teaching for an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter.
• C. Refer the client to a chronic illness support group.
• D. Teach the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with an alteration in the CYP2C19 gene do not metabolize warfarin (Coumadin) well, leading to higher blood levels and more side effects. As this client is a poor candidate for warfarin therapy, the prescriber will most likely recommend the implantation of an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter. This device helps prevent blood clots from reaching the lungs, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who is obese and has obstructive sleep apnea how to decrease the number of nightly apneic episodes. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. "It might help if I tried sleeping only on my back."
• B. "I'll sleep better if I take a sleeping pill at night."
• C. "I'll get a humidifier to run at my bedside at night."
• D. "If I could lose about 50 pounds, I might stop having so many apneic episodes."

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?

• A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Weight gain
• D. Productive cough with yellow sputum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.

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