Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A nurse is interested in providing community education and screening on hypertension. In order to reach a priority population, to what target audience should the nurse provide this service?

• A. African American churches
• B. Asian American groceries
• C. High school sports camps
• D. Women's health clinics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is African American churches. African Americans in the United States have one of the highest rates of hypertension globally. By providing services at African American churches, the nurse can effectively reach this priority population. While hypertension education and screening are essential for all groups, African Americans are the priority population for this intervention due to their disproportionately high rates of hypertension.

3. While providing teaching to a client who is postoperative following coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery and is receiving opioid medications to manage discomfort, which of the following desired effects of medications should the nurse identify as most important for the client's recovery?

• A. It decreases the client's level of anxiety.
• B. It facilitates the client's deep breathing.
• C. It enhances the client's ability to sleep.
• D. It reduces the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the postoperative period following CABG surgery, deep breathing exercises are essential to prevent complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia. Opioid medications can depress the respiratory system, making it crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of deep breathing to maintain optimal lung function. While managing pain and anxiety are important, facilitating deep breathing takes precedence in this situation to promote effective recovery and prevent respiratory complications.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse to take immediate action?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
• C. Client reports shortness of breath
• D. Client's respiratory rate decreases to 10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in the client's respiratory rate to 10 breaths per minute, while receiving oxygen therapy for COPD, is a concerning finding that may indicate carbon dioxide retention and respiratory depression. This situation requires immediate action to prevent further complications. An oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on oxygen therapy. A respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute and reports of shortness of breath are common in clients with COPD and may not necessitate immediate action unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client. Which of the following findings is not a manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Low-grade fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blood in the sputum

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

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