Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. The client with a chest tube after a coronary artery bypass graft has significantly slowed drainage. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the setting on the suction.
• B. Notify the provider immediately.
• C. Re-position the chest tube.
• D. Take the tubing apart to assess for clots.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If the drainage from the chest tube decreases significantly, it may indicate a blockage by a clot, potentially leading to cardiac tamponade. The nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Increasing suction, re-positioning the chest tube, or disassembling the tubing independently are not appropriate actions without healthcare provider guidance in this situation.

3. How does the pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) differ from stable angina?

• A. Accompanied by shortness of breath
• B. Feelings of fear or anxiety
• C. Lasts less than 15 minutes
• D. No relief from taking nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The pain of a myocardial infarction (MI) is often accompanied by shortness of breath and feelings of fear or anxiety. Unlike stable angina, the pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15 minutes and is not relieved by nitroglycerin. Additionally, it can occur without a known cause, unlike stable angina which often has a trigger such as exertion.

4. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following manifestations of this condition?

• A. Severe dyspnea
• B. Nausea
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure, the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to hypoxia. Symptoms of hypoxia include severe dyspnea (A), decreased level of consciousness (C), and headache (D) due to inadequate oxygen supply to the brain. Nausea (B) is not a typical manifestation of acute respiratory failure and is not directly related to the lack of oxygen in the body. Therefore, the nurse should not monitor the client for nausea as a direct consequence of ARF.

5. Which action best demonstrates respect for autonomy when working with a client?

• A. Asks if the client has questions before signing a consent form
• B. Provides the client with accurate information when questioned
• C. Honors the promises made to the client and family
• D. Ensures fair treatment of the client compared to others

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Respect for autonomy involves allowing individuals to make decisions about their care. By asking if the client has questions before signing a consent form, the nurse is respecting the client's right to make informed choices and decisions regarding their healthcare. This action supports the principle of self-determination and autonomy in healthcare decision-making.

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