Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A student learns about modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which factors does this include? (Select one that does not apply)

• A. Age
• B. Hypertension
• C. Obesity
• D. Smoking

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, obesity, smoking, and excessive stress are all modifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease, as they can be changed or controlled through interventions. Age, on the other hand, is a nonmodifiable risk factor, meaning it cannot be altered. Understanding the difference between modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors is essential in preventive healthcare strategies.

3. A client who will undergo a bronchoscopy procedure with a rigid scope and general anesthesia will have their neck in which of the following positions?

• A. A flexed position
• B. An extended position
• C. A neutral position
• D. A hyperextended position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a bronchoscopy with a rigid scope and general anesthesia, the provider will typically place the client's neck in a hyperextended position to allow better visualization and access to the airways. This position helps to align the trachea for easier insertion of the scope.

4. A healthcare professional auscultates a harsh hollow sound over a client's trachea & larynx. Which action should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Document findings.
• B. Administer O2 therapy.
• C. Position client in high-Fowler's position.
• D. Administer prescribed albuterol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional has identified bronchial breath sounds, which are normal findings over the trachea & larynx, characterized by harsh, hollow, tubular, and blowing sounds. The appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional is to document these normal findings. Oxygen therapy, administering albuterol, or repositioning the client is unnecessary as this finding does not indicate a need for intervention.

5. A nurse assesses a client who has a mediastinal chest tube. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. Production of pink sputum
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain at insertion site
• D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a mediastinal chest tube, the presence of pink sputum does not necessarily require immediate intervention. However, tracheal deviation could indicate a tension pneumothorax, sudden shortness of breath could signal tube issues or pneumothorax, and drainage exceeding 70 mL/hr might suggest hemorrhage. Disconnection at the Y site could lead to air entering the tubing, necessitating prompt attention.

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