Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. While suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client on a ventilator, the nurse notices an increase in the client's heart rate from 86/min to 110/min, with irregularity. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Obtain a cardiology consult.
• B. Suction the client less frequently.
• C. Administer an antidysrhythmic medication.
• D. Perform pre-oxygenation prior to suctioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client's heart rate increases and becomes irregular during suctioning of an endotracheal tube, it indicates potential hypoxemia. Performing pre-oxygenation before suctioning helps prevent hypoxemia and subsequent dysrhythmias. This intervention ensures that the client has adequate oxygen reserves before the procedure, reducing the risk of complications related to suctioning.

3. A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?

• A. It means it is caused by another disease.
• B. It means it is essential that it be treated.
• C. It is hypertension with no specific cause.
• D. It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of seizures. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. The client is experiencing an aura.
• B. The client's antiseizure medication level is within the therapeutic range.
• C. The client has been seizure-free for 2 years.
• D. The client's seizure activity lasts longer than 5 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizure activity lasting longer than 5 minutes requires immediate intervention as it can lead to status epilepticus, a medical emergency.

5. A client has been diagnosed with hypertension but does not take the antihypertensive medications because of a lack of symptoms. What response by the nurse is best?

• A. Do you have trouble affording your medications?
• B. Most people with hypertension do not have symptoms.
• C. You are lucky; most people get severe morning headaches.
• D. You need to take your medicine or you will get kidney failure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Most people with hypertension are asymptomatic, although a small percentage do have symptoms such as headache. The nurse should explain this to the client. Asking about paying for medications is not related because the client has already admitted nonadherence. Threatening the client with possible complications will not increase compliance.

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