Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?

• A. It means it is caused by another disease.
• B. It means it is essential that it be treated.
• C. It is hypertension with no specific cause.
• D. It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.

3. A client is prescribed prednisone for asthma management. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take this medication every day to prevent asthma attacks.
• B. I will avoid people with infections while taking this medication.
• C. I will take this medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I feel fine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because prednisone, a corticosteroid, should not be abruptly stopped. It must be tapered off gradually to prevent adrenal insufficiency. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate proper understanding of the medication's use and side effects, emphasizing the importance of daily intake, infection prevention, and taking it with food to avoid stomach upset.

4. A client has developed atelectasis postoperatively. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Increasing dyspnea
• C. Decreasing respiratory rate
• D. Friction rub

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Atelectasis is a condition where the alveoli in the lungs collapse, leading to impaired gas exchange. As a result, the client may experience increasing dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to the decreased lung capacity for oxygen exchange. Facial flushing, decreasing respiratory rate, and friction rub are not typically associated with atelectasis.

5. A client had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse verify with the provider?

• A. Administer enoxaparin 30 mg subcutaneously every 12 hr
• B. Place a wedge or pillow between the client's legs when turning.
• C. Instruct the client to restrict flexion of the hip past 120�.
• D. Encourage the client to perform foot and calf exercises every 2 hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a total hip arthroplasty, the client should be instructed to restrict hip flexion past 90 degrees to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis. Restricting flexion past 120 degrees is excessive and could lead to complications. Therefore, the nurse should verify this prescription with the provider to ensure the client's safety and proper postoperative care.

Similar Questions