Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who will start using fluticasone via MDI twice daily, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your heart rate before each dose.
• B. Inspect your mouth for lesions daily.
• C. Do not use this medication to relieve an acute attack.
• D. Do not skip the morning dose even if symptom-free.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is crucial for clients using inhaled corticosteroids like fluticasone to inspect their mouths daily for signs of oral thrush, a common side effect. Checking the mouth can help identify lesions early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent worsening of the condition. Monitoring heart rate is not specifically required for this medication. Fluticasone is a maintenance medication used to manage COPD, not to relieve acute attacks. Skipping doses, especially in the morning, can lead to inadequate control of COPD symptoms.

3. A client has an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula.
• B. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Document the finding in the client's medical record.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for a client with an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air is to initiate oxygen therapy to improve oxygen saturation levels. Oxygen therapy is crucial to address hypoxemia promptly. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position can also aid in oxygenation, but administering oxygen takes precedence. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, it is a secondary action after ensuring the client's immediate need for oxygen is met. Documenting the finding in the client's medical record is necessary for continuity of care but is not the primary intervention when addressing hypoxemia.

4. A client has returned from the surgical suite following surgery for a fractured mandible with intermaxillary fixation. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse to take?

• A. Prevent aspiration.
• B. Ensure adequate nutrition.
• C. Promote oral hygiene.
• D. Relieve the client's pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Preventing aspiration is the priority for a client with intermaxillary fixation following mandibular surgery. Aspiration can occur due to difficulty swallowing or improper positioning, posing a serious risk to the client's respiratory status. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client's airway is clear and that they are positioned correctly to prevent any potential aspiration events.

5. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

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