Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A client's arterial blood gas results show a pH of 7.3 and a PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg. The client is experiencing which of the following acid-base imbalances?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, there is an excess of carbon dioxide (PaCO2 > 45 mm Hg) leading to a decrease in pH (<7.35). The given values of a pH of 7.3 and PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg indicate respiratory acidosis. Metabolic acidosis involves a primary decrease in bicarbonate levels with a compensatory decrease in PaCO2 to maintain balance. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory alkalosis is marked by low PaCO2 and increased pH levels.

3. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (SATA)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the PFTs are accurate, the therapist needs to know that no bronchodilators have been administered in the past 4 to 6 hours, the client did not smoke within 6 to 8 hours prior to the test and the client can follow basic commands, including different breathing maneuvers. The respiratory therapist can perform PFTs at the bedside. A treadmill is not used for this test.

4. What information should be included as effective for preventing chronic bronchitis in a community presentation?

• A. Maintenance of ideal weight
• B. Annual influenza immunization
• C. Smoking cessation
• D. Regular moderate exercise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is often linked to smoking. Smoking cessation is the most effective preventive measure to reduce the risk of developing chronic bronchitis. Smoking damages the airways and leads to inflammation, making individuals more susceptible to chronic bronchitis. While maintaining an ideal weight, getting an annual influenza vaccine, and engaging in regular moderate exercise are beneficial for overall health, the most crucial intervention to prevent chronic bronchitis is quitting smoking.

5. A client developed fat embolism syndrome (FES) following a fracture. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased serum calcium level
• B. Decreased level of serum lipids
• C. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• D. Increased platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In fat embolism syndrome (FES), fat globules enter the bloodstream and can lead to various complications, including a decrease in serum calcium levels. This occurs due to the formation of fat emboli in the vessels, which can interfere with calcium metabolism. Therefore, a decreased serum calcium level is an expected laboratory finding in a client with fat embolism syndrome.

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