Nursing Elites

1. A client with tuberculosis is starting medication therapy with isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take isoniazid with an antacid.
• B. Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing.
• C. Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy.
• D. Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pyrazinamide can cause gastrointestinal upset and is best taken with a full glass of water to minimize irritation to the stomach lining. This instruction helps reduce the risk of adverse effects associated with pyrazinamide. Options A and C are not directly related to the medication regimen for tuberculosis. While sputum testing is important, the frequency mentioned in option B is not required every two weeks.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of this disease?

• A. Asymmetrical joint involvement
• B. Heberden's nodes
• C. Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes
• D. Pain that worsens with activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes is a hallmark symptom of rheumatoid arthritis. This prolonged morning stiffness is typically a distinguishing feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other types of arthritis, making it the most characteristic assessment finding for this disease.

3. During assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client with chronic bronchitis. Which of the following percussion sounds should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Dullness
• B. Resonance
• C. Tympany
• D. Flatness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic bronchitis, the nurse or healthcare provider would expect to hear resonant sounds upon percussion. Resonance is the normal percussion sound heard over healthy lung tissue. The other options such as dullness, tympany, and flatness are associated with different conditions or abnormalities, not typically expected in chronic bronchitis.

4. A nurse collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the nurse include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select all that apply)

• A. I held the client's morning bronchodilator medication.
• B. The client is ready to go down to radiology for this examination.
• C. Physical therapy states the client can run on a treadmill.
• D. I advised the client not to smoke for 6 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Communication between the nurse and respiratory therapist is crucial before pulmonary function tests (PFTs). It is important to inform the respiratory therapist that the client is ready for the examination. The nurse should not administer bronchodilator medication before the test as it may affect the results, and the client should not smoke for 6 to 8 hours prior to the test to ensure accurate results. Additionally, PFTs do not involve running on a treadmill; instead, the client may be required to perform specific breathing maneuvers as instructed by the respiratory therapist.

5. A client is 4 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client's blood pressure has dropped from 120/80 mm Hg to 90/60 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• B. Check the surgical site for bleeding.
• C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the surgical site for bleeding is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the drop in blood pressure is due to hemorrhage, a potential postoperative complication. Identifying and addressing bleeding promptly is essential to prevent further complications and stabilize the client's condition.

Similar Questions