ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
- C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
- D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.
2. A client with Atrial Fibrillation is prescribed Dabigatran to prevent Thrombosis. Which medication is prescribed concurrently to treat an adverse effect of Dabigatran?
- A. Vitamin K1
- B. Protamine
- C. Omeprazole
- D. Probenecid
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Omeprazole or another proton pump inhibitor is commonly prescribed for clients taking dabigatran who experience abdominal pain and other gastrointestinal adverse effects associated with dabigatran use. Proton pump inhibitors help alleviate these symptoms by reducing gastric acid secretion, which can contribute to gastrointestinal discomfort. Vitamin K1 is not indicated for adverse effects of dabigatran. Protamine is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of heparin, not dabigatran. Probenecid is not typically used to treat adverse effects of dabigatran.
3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hours
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.
4. When a client is starting long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma, what adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Nervousness
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which can lead to fluid retention. Monitoring weight changes is important as it helps in early identification of this adverse effect, enabling timely interventions to manage it. Choice B, nervousness, is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Bradycardia (Choice C) is unlikely as prednisone usually causes tachycardia or increased heart rate. Constipation (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone compared to weight gain.
5. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.
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