Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
• C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Ondansetron
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Promethazine
• D. Lorazepam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ondansetron. Ondansetron is a commonly used antiemetic for managing nausea and vomiting in clients undergoing chemotherapy. It works by blocking serotonin to reduce these symptoms effectively. Metoclopramide (choice B) is another antiemetic but is more commonly used for gastric motility disorders. Promethazine (choice C) is an antihistamine with antiemetic properties, but ondansetron is often preferred for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting due to its efficacy and fewer side effects. Lorazepam (choice D) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and insomnia, not typically for managing nausea and vomiting in this context.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

• A. Bursitis
• B. Sinusitis
• C. Depression
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.

4. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased fasting blood glucose
• C. Decreased hemoglobin A1C
• D. Decreased polyuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.

5. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Increased TSH level
• B. Decreased ALT level
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.

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