Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension is being taught by a healthcare professional. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• B. I can expect my heart rate to increase while taking this medication.
• C. This medication will cause my urine to turn orange.
• D. I will stop taking this medication if I experience headaches.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Grapefruit juice can increase blood levels of verapamil, leading to increased effects and potentially serious side effects such as hypotension or bradycardia. It is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent these adverse reactions. Choice B is incorrect because verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that typically lowers heart rate. Choice C is incorrect as verapamil does not cause urine discoloration. Choice D is incorrect because stopping medication abruptly without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous.

2. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Weigh yourself daily.
• C. Take potassium supplements as needed.
• D. Decrease intake of foods high in sodium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, it is important to monitor for fluid loss. Weighing oneself daily helps track changes in weight due to fluid loss, which can indicate the effectiveness of the medication. This monitoring assists in managing fluid balance and adjusting the dosage if necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because potassium supplements should only be taken if prescribed by a healthcare provider due to the risk of hyperkalemia with furosemide. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing sodium intake is generally a good dietary practice but not a specific instruction related to furosemide therapy.

3. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Four medications decrease the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Four medications reduce the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Four medications reduce the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Four medications decrease the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.

4. A nurse reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
• B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hours before obtaining a blood specimen.
• C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
• D. Administer the medication and obtain a blood specimen 30 minutes later.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To verify the trough levels of a medication accurately, the nurse should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of the medication. The trough level represents the lowest concentration of the medication in the bloodstream, typically right before the next dose is due. This timing ensures an accurate assessment of the drug's concentration in the body at its lowest point, aiding in determining the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity levels. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for 24 hours would not provide the trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect as obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level.

5. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
• C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
• D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. This practice allows for a nitrate-free interval, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Applying the patch to a different site each day (choice A) is not necessary as long as the skin is clean and rotated to avoid skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair (choice C) does not impact the effectiveness of the medication. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time (choice D) can lead to tolerance, which is why the patch should be removed daily.

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