a nurse in the operating room is caring for a client who received a dose of succinylcholine during the operation the client suddenly develops rigidit
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine, leading to muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in body temperature. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are indicative of malignant hyperthermia, a potential complication of succinylcholine. Dantrolene is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia as it acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and counteract the symptoms. Neostigmine (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents, not for malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (Choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (Choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is not the appropriate medication for malignant hyperthermia.

2. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Prednisone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice A). Prednisone can cause potassium depletion, so clients should increase their intake of foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach. Potassium-rich foods help maintain electrolyte balance and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as muscle weakness and irregular heartbeats. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dairy products (Choice B) or avoiding foods high in vitamin K (Choice C) are not specifically related to Prednisone therapy. Decreasing protein intake (Choice D) is also not necessary in this case.

3. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist, such as albuterol, and an inhaled glucocorticoid, such as beclomethasone, for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. This sequence is important because the beta2-agonist promotes bronchodilation, which enhances the absorption and effectiveness of the glucocorticoid. Instructing the client to administer the albuterol inhaler before using the beclomethasone inhaler ensures optimal therapeutic benefit. Therefore, option B is the correct choice. Option A is incorrect because the timing of albuterol administration may vary based on the prescribed regimen. Option C is incorrect because beclomethasone is a controller medication, not a rescue medication, and should not be used during acute episodes. Option D is incorrect because beclomethasone should be shaken before use to ensure proper dispersion of the medication.

4. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication with the first bite of food helps in achieving optimal effectiveness and minimizes the risk of side effects like nausea or upset stomach. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can lead to increased gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for taking Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is usually taken daily, not every other day.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

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