a nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client who has chronic kidney disease which of the following sets of values should the nurse e
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam

1. A client with chronic kidney disease has arterial blood gas values being reviewed by a nurse. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, metabolic acidosis is common due to impaired kidney function leading to reduced bicarbonate excretion. The correct values indicating metabolic acidosis in this scenario are a low pH (acidosis), low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level, and low PaCO2 (compensation through respiratory alkalosis). Therefore, the expected values for a client with chronic kidney disease would be pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, as depicted in choice A.

2. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) may present with which of the following manifestations? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure (ARF), the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to respiratory distress. Symptoms of ARF typically include severe dyspnea (difficulty breathing), decreased level of consciousness due to hypoxia, and headache from inadequate oxygenation to the brain. Nausea is not a typical manifestation of ARF and would not be expected in this condition.

3. A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.

4. A client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who is 4 hours postpartum, a saturated perineal pad within 30 minutes is a priority finding as it may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Deep tendon reflexes being 4+ is within normal limits postpartum. The fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding at this time frame, indicating proper involution of the uterus. Approximated edges of an episiotomy suggest proper healing.

5. A healthcare provider in the emergency department is caring for a client who comes to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the provider the presence of intra-abdominal bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis indicating intra-abdominal bleeding, which can be associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign is a facial spasm related to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during early pregnancy. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix in early pregnancy.

Similar Questions

A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?
A client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor expresses disappointment for not having a natural childbirth. Which response should the nurse make?
A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
A client is being assessed for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?

Access More Features

ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses