ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is being assessed for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?
- A. Localized area of breast tenderness
- B. Pelvic pain
- C. Vaginal discharge with foul odor
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic pain is a common symptom of endometritis, which is an infection of the uterine lining. It is an important finding that warrants further evaluation. Localized area of breast tenderness may indicate mastitis, vaginal discharge with a foul odor could suggest a vaginal infection, and hematuria points towards a urinary tract issue, but they are not specific to endometritis.
2. A newborn's mother is positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen. Which of the following should the infant receive?
- A. Hepatitis B immune globulin at 1 week followed by hepatitis B vaccine monthly for 6 months
- B. Hepatitis B vaccine monthly until the newborn tests negative for the hepatitis B surface antigen
- C. Hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hr of birth
- D. Hepatitis B vaccine at 24 hr followed by hepatitis B immune globulin every 12 hr for 3 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario where a newborn's mother is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen, the infant should receive both hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. This is crucial to provide passive and active immunity against the Hepatitis B virus. Hepatitis B immune globulin provides immediate protection by giving passive immunity, while the vaccine stimulates active immunity in the infant. Administering both within 12 hours of birth is important to prevent vertical transmission of the virus.
3. During the admission assessment of a client at 38 weeks of gestation with severe preeclampsia, what would the nurse expect as a finding?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Absence of clonus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Report of headache
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation. Headache is a common symptom in clients with severe preeclampsia due to cerebral edema or vasospasm. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with severe preeclampsia. Clonus (Choice B) is a sign of hyperactive reflexes, often seen in clients with severe preeclampsia. Polyuria (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients with severe preeclampsia.
4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?
- A. Hydrops fetalis
- B. Hypobilirubinemia
- C. Biliary atresia
- D. Transient clotting difficulties
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.
5. A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
- A. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever
- B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting
- C. A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting
- D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports of painless vaginal bleeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
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