ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?
- A. Hyperinsulinemia
- B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
- C. Brachial plexus injury
- D. Increased blood viscosity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.
2. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
3. When admitting a client at 33 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of placenta previa, which action should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor vaginal bleeding
- B. Administer glucocorticoids
- C. Insert an IV catheter
- D. Apply an external fetal monitor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding. When admitting a client with placenta previa, the priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Applying an external fetal monitor helps in continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and ensures timely detection of any distress or changes in the fetal status, which is crucial in managing this condition. While monitoring vaginal bleeding is important, identifying fetal well-being takes precedence in this situation.
4. When reviewing the arterial blood gas values for a client, a nurse notes a pH of 7.32, PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L. What does this indicate about the acid-base balance?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The given values suggest respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the pH is low (<7.35), PaCO2 is high (>45 mm Hg), and the HCO3 is normal or slightly elevated. In this scenario, the low pH (7.32) and high PaCO2 (48 mm Hg) indicate respiratory acidosis, where there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to acidification of the body fluids.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the arterial blood gas results for a client in the ICU who has kidney failure and determines the client has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Widened QRS complexes
- B. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
- C. Bounding peripheral pulses
- D. Warm, flushed skin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is characterized by an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, leading to acidosis. This condition can affect the heart's electrical conduction system, resulting in widened QRS complexes on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes, bounding peripheral pulses, and warm, flushed skin are not typically associated with respiratory acidosis.
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