a nurse is planning care for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth the client has a history of thromboembolic disease which of
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ATI RN

ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.

3. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.

4. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

5. A client in labor at 40 weeks of gestation has saturated two perineal pads in the past 30 min. The nurse suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which is concerning for placenta previa. The appropriate nursing action in this situation is to prepare for a cesarean birth. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which can lead to life-threatening bleeding during labor. It is crucial to avoid vaginal examinations or initiation of pushing as these actions can exacerbate bleeding. A magnesium sulfate infusion is not indicated in the management of placenta previa. Therefore, the priority intervention is to prepare for a cesarean birth to ensure the safety of the mother and the baby.

Similar Questions

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