ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A nurse in the antepartum unit is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following comp
- A. Placenta previa
- B. Prolapsed cord
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Abruptio placentae
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
2. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
3. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. Following an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, indicating a:
- A. Incomplete miscarriage
- B. Missed miscarriage
- C. Inevitable miscarriage
- D. Complete miscarriage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A missed miscarriage, also known as a silent or delayed miscarriage, occurs when the embryo or fetus has died, but no bleeding or contractions have occurred to expel it from the uterus. In this scenario, the client's experiencing slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past two weeks indicates a missed miscarriage as the fetus has died, but the body has not recognized the loss or expelled the products of conception.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. HCO3- 30 mEq/L
- B. PaCO2 50 mm Hg
- C. pH 7.45
- D. Potassium 3.3 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the primary disturbance is an increase in PaCO2 levels above the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg. Option B, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, indicates an elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide, which is consistent with respiratory acidosis. Options A, C, and D are not directly indicative of respiratory acidosis. HCO3- (Option A) is more related to metabolic acidosis or alkalosis, pH (Option C) is within the normal range indicating no acid-base imbalance, and potassium (Option D) levels are not specific to respiratory acidosis.
5. A newborn is born to a mother with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. The newborn is macrosomic and presents with respiratory distress syndrome. The most likely cause of the respiratory distress is which of the following?
- A. Hyperinsulinemia
- B. Increased deposits of fat in the chest and shoulder area
- C. Brachial plexus injury
- D. Increased blood viscosity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is hyperinsulinemia. In infants born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes, the excess glucose crosses the placenta, leading to fetal hyperglycemia. This results in fetal hyperinsulinemia, which in turn can cause macrosomia (large birth weight), increasing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to the immature lungs' inability to handle the increased workload. Hyperinsulinemia, not increased deposits of fat, brachial plexus injury, or increased blood viscosity, is the most likely cause of respiratory distress in this scenario.
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