Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription provided includes the medication name, dosage, and route of administration. However, it lacks information about the frequency or timing of the medication administration. In this case, it is crucial to clarify the frequency with the provider to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

2. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following herbal supplements should the client be instructed to avoid?

• A. St. John's wort
• B. Echinacea
• C. Garlic
• D. Ginseng

Correct answer: A

Rationale: St. John's wort should be avoided by clients taking Warfarin as it can reduce the medication's effectiveness by affecting its metabolism. Echinacea, garlic, and ginseng are also known to interact with Warfarin, either by increasing the risk of bleeding or altering its anticoagulant effects. However, St. John's wort is particularly significant due to its potent enzyme-inducing properties that can lead to subtherapeutic levels of Warfarin, potentially increasing the risk of blood clots.

3. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

• A. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
• B. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure
• C. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta2 receptors in the heart and lungs
• D. To lower blood glucose by stimulating the release of insulin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

4. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this and instruct them to report it to the healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.

5. When a client is receiving treatment with methotrexate, which supplement should the nurse instruct the client to take?

• A. Folic acid
• B. Vitamin D
• C. Calcium
• D. Iron

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Folic acid supplementation is crucial for clients undergoing methotrexate treatment because methotrexate functions as a folic acid antagonist. By supplementing with folic acid, the risk of methotrexate toxicity can be minimized, improving the treatment's effectiveness and safety. Vitamin D, calcium, and iron are not specifically recommended in conjunction with methotrexate therapy and may not provide the same protective benefits as folic acid.

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