Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

• A. Name
• B. Dosage
• C. Route
• D. Frequency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The prescription provided includes the medication name, dosage, and route of administration. However, it lacks information about the frequency or timing of the medication administration. In this case, it is crucial to clarify the frequency with the provider to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication for the client with Hyperemesis Gravidarum.

2. A client has been prescribed Aspirin for prevention of cardiovascular disease. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client has a decrease in troponin levels.
• B. The client has a regular heart rhythm.
• C. The client experiences a decrease in episodes of angina.
• D. The client's blood pressure remains stable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A decrease in episodes of angina indicates that Aspirin is effectively preventing the formation of clots that could lead to cardiovascular events. Angina is chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, usually due to coronary artery disease. Aspirin works by inhibiting platelet aggregation, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation in the arteries. Improvement in angina symptoms suggests that the medication is successfully preventing clot-related complications in the cardiovascular system. Monitoring and recognizing a decrease in angina episodes can be a valuable indicator of the medication's efficacy in preventing cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decrease in troponin levels, a regular heart rhythm, or stable blood pressure, while important parameters, do not directly reflect the effectiveness of Aspirin in preventing cardiovascular events through antiplatelet action.

3. A client has a new prescription for clonidine to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• B. Expect increased salivation during the first few weeks of therapy.
• C. Avoid driving until the client's reaction to the medication is known.
• D. Stop the medication if you experience a dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting clonidine therapy for hypertension is to avoid driving until their reaction to the medication is known. Clonidine can cause drowsiness, so engaging in activities like driving that require alertness should be avoided until the individual understands how the medication affects them. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect of drowsiness associated with clonidine that could impair driving abilities. Discontinuing the medication if a rash develops, expecting increased salivation, or stopping the medication for dry mouth are not primary concerns related to clonidine therapy for hypertension.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium levels. Hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Potassium levels should be closely monitored to prevent adverse effects. Monitoring sodium levels is not directly related to Digoxin toxicity. While magnesium and calcium are important electrolytes, potassium levels are more critical for Digoxin toxicity assessment.

5. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.

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