Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Warfarin. Which of the following dietary instructions should the provider include?

• A. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.
• B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• C. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• D. Avoid foods high in iron.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects. Foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, should be limited in the diet of individuals taking Warfarin to maintain a consistent level of the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as increasing intake of leafy green vegetables (choice A) and dairy products (choice C) may increase the intake of vitamin K, which is not recommended, and avoiding foods high in iron (choice D) is not directly related to Warfarin therapy.

2. A client with Bipolar disorder has a new prescription for Carbamazepine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy.
• B. Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet.
• C. You will need to have a complete blood count and carbamazepine levels drawn periodically.
• D. Notify your provider if you develop a rash.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Eliminate grapefruit juice from your diet." Grapefruit juice affects carbamazepine metabolism and should be avoided. It can lead to increased levels of the medication, potentially causing toxicity. Monitoring carbamazepine blood levels and the complete blood count (CBC) is essential to ensure the medication's efficacy and safety. Although choice A is incorrect (This medication can safely be taken during pregnancy), carbamazepine is classified as a Pregnancy Category D drug, which means there is positive evidence of human fetal risk. Choice D (Notify your provider if you develop a rash) is also important because carbamazepine can cause serious adverse effects like Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring and prompt reporting of any rash are crucial. Therefore, choices C and D are also relevant instructions for the client.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Furosemide to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication undiluted.
• B. Dilute the medication with normal saline.
• C. Administer the medication through a central line.
• D. Administer the medication slowly over 2 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide, when administered intravenously, should be given slowly over 2 minutes to reduce the risk of ototoxicity, a known adverse effect of rapid infusion. This method allows for better monitoring of the client's response and decreases the likelihood of adverse reactions associated with a faster administration rate.

4. Before administering lithium to a client with bipolar disorder who has been taking the medication for 1 year, the nurse should check to see that which of the following tests has been completed?

• A. Thyroid hormone assay
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• D. Brain natriuretic peptide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the thyroid hormone assay. Long-term lithium use can result in thyroid dysfunction, making it crucial to monitor the client's thyroid function regularly to detect any abnormalities early and prevent potential complications. Liver function tests (choice B) are not specifically associated with lithium therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (choice C) is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not directly related to lithium therapy. Brain natriuretic peptide (choice D) is a test used to diagnose heart failure and is not relevant to monitoring lithium therapy.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

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