ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's admission laboratory results. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
- A. Sodium 138
- B. Creatinine 1.8
- C. Hemoglobin 15
- D. Potassium 4.2
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated creatinine level, such as 1.8, suggests potential kidney dysfunction, requiring further assessment. Sodium level within normal limits (135-145 mEq/L), hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL, and potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L are all within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns. Therefore, they do not require further evaluation at this time.
2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Administer bronchodilators
- D. Reposition the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Resume a regular diet immediately.
- B. Remove the adhesive bandage after 3 days.
- C. Begin moderate activity immediately.
- D. Take a tub bath instead of a shower.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The adhesive bandage should be removed 3 days after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to allow the incision to heal properly. Choice A is incorrect as the client should start with a clear liquid diet and advance to a regular diet as tolerated. Choice C is incorrect because the client should gradually increase activity levels as tolerated. Choice D is incorrect as the client should avoid tub baths and opt for showers to prevent infection and promote healing.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- D. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the provider as it can indicate an air leak. This finding suggests that air is escaping from the pleural space, which can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours is within the expected range for a client with a chest tube and is not a cause for concern. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is a normal finding that indicates the system is functioning properly. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is also an expected finding that shows the fluctuation of fluid with the client's breathing and is not alarming.
5. A school nurse is teaching a parent about absence seizures. What information should be included?
- A. This type of seizure lasts 30 to 60 seconds.
- B. This type of seizure can be mistaken for daydreaming.
- C. The child usually has an aura prior to onset.
- D. This type of seizure has a gradual onset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because absence seizures are brief and can be mistaken for daydreaming. Choice A is incorrect because absence seizures typically last a few seconds, not 30 to 60 seconds. Choice C is incorrect as absence seizures usually occur suddenly without an aura. Choice D is incorrect because absence seizures have a sudden onset, not a gradual one.
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