ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high
- B. Eat foods that are high in sodium
- C. Rise slowly when getting out of bed
- D. Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide can cause low potassium levels, and clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
2. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension, and a nurse is teaching about dietary management. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Limit your sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day.
- B. Increase your intake of high-fat foods.
- C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
- D. Limit your potassium intake to 3,000 mg per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit your sodium intake to 2,000 mg per day. Limiting sodium intake helps manage hypertension by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen hypertension by contributing to weight gain and other cardiovascular risks. Choice C is incorrect as green, leafy vegetables are beneficial for hypertension due to their high potassium and other nutrient content. Choice D is incorrect as limiting potassium intake is typically not recommended for hypertension management unless specified by a healthcare provider.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
- B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
- C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
- D. Albumin 4 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding
- B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding
- C. Place the client in a left lateral position
- D. Place the feeding bag 61 cm (24 in) above the client's abdomen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube is to flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding. This step helps ensure the patency of the tube by clearing any blockages or residuals. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding would not prevent clogging before the feeding. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height for the feeding bag is usually recommended to be at or below the level of the stomach to prevent complications like aspiration.
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