ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client has a prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take this medication with food.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Take this medication with antacids.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption and efficacy. Taking it with food or antacids can interfere with its absorption, leading to reduced effectiveness of the medication.
2. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine, leading to muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in body temperature. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are indicative of malignant hyperthermia, a potential complication of succinylcholine. Dantrolene is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia as it acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and counteract the symptoms. Neostigmine (Choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents, not for malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (Choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (Choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is not the appropriate medication for malignant hyperthermia.
3. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?
- A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
- B. Opioid, such as morphine
- C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
- D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.
4. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.
5. A client has been on levothyroxine therapy for several months. Which of the following findings indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?
- A. Decrease in level of thyroxine (T4)
- B. Increase in weight
- C. Increase in hours of sleep per night
- D. Decrease in level of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A therapeutic response to levothyroxine is indicated by a decrease in the level of TSH. This decrease signifies that the body requires less stimulation to produce thyroid hormone, reflecting a normalization of thyroid function due to the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as an increase in T4 levels, weight gain, and increased sleep hours are not indicative of a therapeutic response to levothyroxine therapy.
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