ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing teaching about folic acid to a client who is primigravida. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should take folic acid to prevent neural tube defects in your baby.
- B. You should consume at least 400 micrograms of folic acid daily.
- C. You can increase your dietary intake of folic acid by consuming cereals and citrus fruits.
- D. You should expect improved energy levels when taking folic acid supplements.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects, and dietary sources like cereals and citrus fruits are good options to increase folic acid intake. Choice A is incorrect because folic acid is primarily recommended to prevent neural tube defects, not to prevent infections. Choice B is incorrect because the recommended daily intake of folic acid for pregnant women is at least 400 micrograms, not 300. Choice D is incorrect because folic acid is not typically associated with improving energy levels.
2. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with a history of hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?
- A. Educate the patient on the importance of medication
- B. Reassess the patient in 6 months
- C. Refer the patient to a specialist
- D. Discontinue the medication
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Educating the patient on the importance of medication is crucial when dealing with a patient who is non-compliant with their hypertension medication. By providing information about the significance of the medication in controlling blood pressure and preventing complications, the patient may be more motivated to adhere to the prescribed treatment. Reassessing the patient in 6 months (choice B) may lead to further deterioration of the patient's condition if non-compliance continues. Referring the patient to a specialist (choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should be preceded by efforts to improve compliance. Discontinuing the medication (choice D) without addressing the non-compliance issue can have serious health consequences for the patient.
3. A nurse is providing teaching about immunizations to a client who is pregnant. The nurse should inform the client that she can receive which of the following immunizations during pregnancy?
- A. Varicella vaccine.
- B. Inactivated polio vaccine.
- C. Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis vaccine.
- D. Inactivated influenza vaccine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tetanus diphtheria and acellular pertussis (Tdap) vaccine. The Tdap vaccine can be safely administered during pregnancy to protect both the mother and the newborn against whooping cough. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the Varicella vaccine, Inactivated polio vaccine, and Inactivated influenza vaccine are generally not recommended during pregnancy due to safety concerns.
4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure daily while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nocturia.
- D. Avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.
5. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
- C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.
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