ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is providing teaching about folic acid to a client who is primigravida. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should take folic acid to prevent neural tube defects in your baby.
- B. You should consume at least 400 micrograms of folic acid daily.
- C. You can increase your dietary intake of folic acid by consuming cereals and citrus fruits.
- D. You should expect improved energy levels when taking folic acid supplements.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects, and dietary sources like cereals and citrus fruits are good options to increase folic acid intake. Choice A is incorrect because folic acid is primarily recommended to prevent neural tube defects, not to prevent infections. Choice B is incorrect because the recommended daily intake of folic acid for pregnant women is at least 400 micrograms, not 300. Choice D is incorrect because folic acid is not typically associated with improving energy levels.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- B. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
- C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- D. Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site can indicate a bile leak, which is an abnormal finding and should be reported. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Serosanguineous wound drainage, which is a mix of blood and serum, is expected following a surgery like cholecystectomy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not findings that require immediate reporting.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.
4. Which of the following is a sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Bradycardia. Bradycardia, or a slower than normal heart rate, is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, but an excess of digoxin in the body can lead to toxicity. This toxicity can manifest as various symptoms, with bradycardia being one of the most common ones. Hypertension (high blood pressure) and tachycardia (fast heart rate) are not typical signs of digoxin toxicity. Tachypnea, which refers to rapid breathing, is also not a common sign of digoxin toxicity.
5. A nurse is completing an incident report after a client fall. Which of the following competencies of Quality and Safety Education for Nurses is the nurse demonstrating?
- A. Quality improvement
- B. Patient safety
- C. Evidence-based practice
- D. Informatics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Quality improvement. Completing an incident report after a client fall aligns with the quality improvement competency of QSEN, as it involves identifying a system issue (fall incident) that needs to be addressed to enhance the quality of care. Choice B, patient safety, focuses more on preventing harm to patients rather than the systematic improvement process. Choice C, evidence-based practice, pertains to integrating research evidence with clinical expertise and patient values in decision-making, which is not directly related to incident reporting. Choice D, informatics, involves using technology and data to support decision-making and improve patient care, which is not the primary focus when completing an incident report.
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