a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is to begin long term oral prednisone for treatment of chronic asthm the nurse should instruct

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is being discharged and will start long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma treatment. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

A. Weight gain
B. Nervousness
C. Bradycardia
D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is an adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which leads to fluid retention. This can be monitored by tracking weight changes. Nervousness (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Bradycardia (Choice C) is not typically associated with prednisone use; in fact, tachycardia can be more common. Constipation (Choice D) is not a prominent adverse effect of prednisone.

2. A client has a new prescription for alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?

A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.
B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
C. Take the medication with a meal to reduce gastric irritation.
D. Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce if difficulty swallowing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking alendronate is to take it with a full glass of water after rising in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation. It is important to remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Taking the medication with a meal or crushing the tablet are not recommended instructions for alendronate administration. Choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the proper administration guidelines for alendronate.

3. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

A. Dry oral mucous membranes
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

4. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Collecting duct
D. Distal convoluted tubule

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.

5. What is a serious adverse reaction to penicillin?

A. Liver Failure
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Respiratory Depression
D. Edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anaphylaxis. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur as a serious adverse reaction to penicillin. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Liver failure is not a typical adverse reaction to penicillin, respiratory depression is more commonly associated with opioid medications, and edema is not a common severe adverse reaction to penicillin.