ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client with increased intracranial pressure is receiving Mannitol. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose 150 mg/dL
- B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Bilateral equal pupil size
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Dyspnea is a concerning finding in a client receiving Mannitol as it can be a manifestation of heart failure, which is an adverse effect of the medication. The nurse should promptly notify the provider, discontinue the Mannitol, and initiate appropriate interventions to address the dyspnea and monitor the client's condition closely. Choice A, Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL, is within normal limits and not directly related to Mannitol administration. Choice B, Urine output of 40 mL/hr, could indicate decreased renal perfusion, but it is not the most critical finding compared to dyspnea. Choice D, Bilateral equal pupil size, is a normal neurological finding and not directly related to Mannitol therapy.
2. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough.
- B. Hyperglycemia.
- C. Weight gain.
- D. Increased urination.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is a persistent dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin. It is essential for the client to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hyperglycemia, weight gain, and increased urination are not typically associated with Enalapril use.
3. A client in the emergency department has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Administer flumazenil.
- B. Identify the client's level of orientation.
- C. Infuse IV fluids.
- D. Prepare the client for gastric lavage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a situation where a client presents with Benzodiazepine toxicity, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client. By identifying the client's level of orientation, the nurse can gather crucial information about the client's mental status, which is essential for determining the appropriate care and interventions needed. Administering flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines but should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Infusing IV fluids and preparing for gastric lavage may be necessary interventions but should follow a thorough assessment of the client's condition to ensure proper prioritization of care.
4. A healthcare provider plans to administer Morphine IV to a postoperative client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?
- A. Monitor for seizures and confusion with repeated doses.
- B. Protect the client's skin from severe diarrhea associated with morphine.
- C. Withhold this medication if the respiratory rate is less than 12/min.
- D. Administer Morphine intermittently via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the provider is to withhold morphine if the client's respiratory rate is 12/min or less. Respiratory depression is a serious side effect of morphine and other opioids. Withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider is essential to prevent further respiratory compromise in the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because monitoring for seizures and confusion, protecting the client's skin from severe diarrhea, and administering morphine via IV bolus over 30 seconds or less are not the primary actions to ensure client safety when administering morphine IV. Respiratory status is crucial due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with opioid administration.
5. A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?
- A. These medications work by inhibiting enzymes to prevent HIV replication.
- B. These medications work by preventing protein synthesis within the HIV cell.
- C. These medications work by weakening the cell wall of the HIV virus.
- D. These medications work by blocking HIV entry into cells.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access