Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What information should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication only when feeling depressed.
• D. Report any unusual side effects to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking fluoxetine (Prozac) due to potential interactions. Alcohol consumption can increase the risk of certain side effects and may reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine is usually taken daily regardless of the client's mood. Choice D is not the priority teaching point; while reporting side effects is important, avoiding alcohol is critical due to the potential interactions.

2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

3. Research conducted by Miller and Rahe in 1997 demonstrated a correlation between the effects of life changes and illness, leading to the development of the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ). Which principle most limits the effectiveness of this tool?

• A. Specific illnesses are not identified.
• B. The numerical values associated with specific life events are randomly assigned.
• C. Stress is viewed as only a physiological response.
• D. Personal perception of the event is excluded.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The main limitation of the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ) is that it does not consider an individual's personal perception of a life event. As people may interpret events differently, their subjective perspective plays a crucial role in how they experience stress and its potential impact on their health. Ignoring personal perception limits the effectiveness of the tool as it fails to capture the variations in how people respond to life changes. Choices A, B, and C are not the main limitations of the RLCQ. Specific illnesses not being identified or numerical values being randomly assigned do not directly impact the personal perception of life events. Additionally, viewing stress as only a physiological response is not the primary limitation, as stress encompasses psychological and emotional components as well.

4. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

• A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
• B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
• C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
• D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

5. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

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