Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Lanugo
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Findings in a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. In anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances often lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, due to malnutrition and potential purging behaviors. Hyperkalemia, high potassium levels, is not a common finding in individuals with anorexia nervosa.

2. A client displays signs and symptoms indicative of hypochondriasis. The nurse would initially expect to see:

• A. Self-preoccupation
• B. La belle indifference
• C. Fear of physicians
• D. Insight into the source of their fears

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hypochondriasis, individuals are excessively preoccupied with and worried about having a serious illness, despite reassurance from medical professionals. This self-preoccupation is a key characteristic of hypochondriasis. 'La belle indifference' refers to a lack of concern or distress about symptoms, which is not typically seen in hypochondriasis. Fear of physicians may be present due to the individual's persistent belief in their illness despite medical reassurance. Insight into the source of their fears is usually lacking in hypochondriasis, as individuals often believe their physical symptoms are evidence of a serious illness.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). Which information should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Report any unusual side effects to the healthcare provider.
• D. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients taking fluoxetine (Prozac) should avoid alcohol to prevent adverse interactions.

4. A healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of medication therapy for a client diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Which outcome should indicate that the medication has been effective?

• A. The client reports a decrease in manic episodes.
• B. The client experiences fewer mood swings.
• C. The client sleeps for 8 hours each night.
• D. The client maintains a stable weight.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in manic episodes is a key indicator of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Manic episodes are a hallmark of bipolar disorder, and a decrease in their frequency or intensity suggests that the medication is helping to stabilize the client's mood and manage their symptoms. While choices B, C, and D are important aspects of overall health and well-being, they are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of medication therapy for bipolar disorder. Choice B focuses on mood swings in general, which may include depressive episodes as well, while choice C addresses sleep patterns and choice D relates to weight stability, which can be influenced by various factors unrelated to bipolar disorder treatment.

5. Which mood stabilizer is commonly prescribed for bipolar disorder?

• A. Sertraline
• B. Lithium
• C. Clozapine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is a well-established mood stabilizer commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control manic episodes, stabilize mood swings, and reduce the risk of relapse in individuals with this condition. Sertraline is an antidepressant commonly used for treating depression, while Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications used for different psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it is specifically indicated and effective for bipolar disorder.

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