Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the management of anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
• D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the side effects of lorazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, which can be dangerous, especially when combined with activities like driving or operating machinery. Choice A is correct as it promotes medication adherence. Choice C is correct as lorazepam can impair cognitive and motor skills, impacting driving ability. Choice D is correct as lorazepam is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.

2. What information should the nurse include in patient education for a patient prescribed valproic acid for bipolar disorder?

• A. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
• B. Regular blood tests are necessary to monitor medication levels.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.
• D. It is safe to stop the medication abruptly if side effects occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Regular blood tests are crucial when taking valproic acid to monitor the medication levels in the bloodstream. This monitoring helps ensure that the patient is receiving the correct dosage for effective treatment and to prevent adverse effects associated with either subtherapeutic or toxic levels of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between valproic acid and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as valproic acid can generally be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping valproic acid can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.

3. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

4. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Methylphenidate
• D. Clozapine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly prescribed to manage symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain to improve focus, attention span, and impulse control. Haloperidol, fluoxetine, and clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, fluoxetine is an antidepressant, and clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic, each with different mechanisms of action and primary indications.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the provider expect the client to exhibit?

• A. A lack of remorse for wrongdoing
• B. A fear of gaining weight
• C. A need for constant reassurance
• D. A willingness to take responsibility for actions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically exhibit a lack of remorse for their actions. They may disregard the rights of others, engage in deceitful and manipulative behaviors, and show a consistent pattern of irresponsibility and disregard for social norms. This behavior is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical behaviors associated with antisocial personality disorder. Fear of gaining weight is more indicative of an eating disorder rather than antisocial personality disorder. Needing constant reassurance is not a common trait of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Additionally, individuals with this disorder often avoid taking responsibility for their actions.

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