Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with factitious disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Intentional production of false symptoms
• B. Lack of concern about symptoms
• C. Fear of gaining weight
• D. Unintentional production of false symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with factitious disorder deliberately fabricate or exaggerate symptoms to assume the sick role and garner attention. They may show a lack of concern about their symptoms, a phenomenon known as la belle indifférence. Fear of gaining weight is not typically associated with factitious disorder. Therefore, the correct behavior to expect in a client with factitious disorder is the intentional production of false symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lack of concern about symptoms and fear of gaining weight are not characteristic of factitious disorder. Additionally, factitious disorder involves the intentional, not unintentional, production of false symptoms.

2. Which statement demonstrates a well-structured attempt at limit setting?

• A. Hitting me when you are angry is unacceptable.
• B. I expect you to behave yourself during dinner.
• C. Come here, right now!
• D. Good boys don't bite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A, 'Hitting me when you are angry is unacceptable,' demonstrates a well-structured attempt at limit setting because it clearly defines the unacceptable behavior without ambiguity. This statement sets a clear boundary and clearly communicates the consequence for the behavior. In contrast, choices B, C, and D are less effective in setting limits as they are either vague expectations or commands without specific consequences for crossing the limit.

3. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it challenging to differentiate between them
• B. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with cataplexy
• C. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished
• D. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome may experience temporary paralysis during sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.

4. A client is being treated for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which intervention should be included in the care plan?

• A. Discourage the client from performing rituals.
• B. Allow the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on their compulsions.
• D. Isolate the client to prevent performance of rituals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allowing the client to perform rituals in the early stages of treatment is a common therapeutic approach for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Allowing the client to engage in rituals can help reduce anxiety by providing temporary relief. It is a part of exposure therapy, where the individual is gradually exposed to anxiety-provoking situations. As treatment progresses, the focus shifts to gradually reducing the frequency and intensity of rituals through interventions like exposure and response prevention therapy. Discouraging the client from performing rituals (Choice A) is not recommended as it may increase anxiety and resistance to treatment. Encouraging the client to focus on their compulsions (Choice C) may reinforce the behavior rather than helping to decrease it. Isolating the client (Choice D) is not therapeutic and can lead to feelings of abandonment and worsen symptoms.

5. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

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