a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed lorazepam ativan for the treatment of anxiety which of the following i
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ATI Mental Health Practice B

1. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.

2. A client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of hopelessness. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to address these feelings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of hopelessness, helping them identify positive aspects of their life can be an effective nursing intervention. This approach can assist in shifting their focus from negativity to positivity, promoting a sense of hope and potentially improving their overall outlook and well-being. By highlighting the positive aspects, the nurse can support the client in recognizing reasons for hope and encourage a more optimistic perspective, which can aid in addressing and alleviating feelings of hopelessness. Encouraging physical activity (Choice A) may be beneficial for overall well-being but may not directly address feelings of hopelessness. Providing opportunities for decision-making (Choice B) can empower the client but may not specifically target feelings of hopelessness. Encouraging verbalization of feelings (Choice D) is important but may not be as effective as helping the client shift their focus to positive aspects of life.

3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mindfulness meditation.' Side effects of antipsychotic medications include tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Mindfulness meditation is not a side effect of antipsychotic medications. Choices A, B, and D are all potential side effects of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medication. Hyperglycemia can occur as a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, particularly the second-generation ones.

4. Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.

5. A client prescribed sertraline for depression is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because sertraline, used for depression, typically takes several weeks to become effective. It is important for clients to understand this delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and continue taking the medication as prescribed despite not seeing immediate results.

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