a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed lorazepam ativan for the treatment of anxiety which of the following i
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Mental Health Practice B

1. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.

2. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

3. A client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. The nurse recognizes these as classic signs of which condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation of progressive memory changes, poor judgment, and attention deficits align with classic signs of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline that significantly impacts daily functioning. While delirium and mania may present with cognitive changes, Alzheimer's is specifically associated with progressive memory loss and cognitive impairment over time.

4. Which should the healthcare provider recognize as a DSM-5 disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The DSM-5 categorizes mental health disorders for diagnostic purposes. Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the disorders listed in the DSM-5, characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various events or activities. This disorder falls under the category of anxiety disorders, which also include panic disorder, phobias, and others. Choices A, C, and D are not DSM-5 disorders. Obesity and hypertension are medical conditions, while grief, though a significant emotional response, is not classified as a mental health disorder in the DSM-5.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with factitious disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with factitious disorder deliberately fabricate or exaggerate symptoms to assume the sick role and garner attention. They may show a lack of concern about their symptoms, a phenomenon known as la belle indifférence. Fear of gaining weight is not typically associated with factitious disorder. Therefore, the correct behavior to expect in a client with factitious disorder is the intentional production of false symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lack of concern about symptoms and fear of gaining weight are not characteristic of factitious disorder. Additionally, factitious disorder involves the intentional, not unintentional, production of false symptoms.

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