a nurse is providing education to a client who has been prescribed diazepam for anxiety which statement by the client indicates an accurate understand
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. When educating a client prescribed diazepam for anxiety, which statement indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients prescribed diazepam for anxiety should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can potentiate the side effects of diazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, increasing the risk of harm. Choice A is incorrect because diazepam is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when feeling anxious. Choice C is also important but not directly related to the medication itself. Choice D is dangerous advice; stopping diazepam abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

2. A client has been diagnosed with depersonalization/derealization disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Depersonalization/derealization disorder is characterized by feelings of detachment from one's body or surroundings. Individuals with this disorder may feel like they are observing themselves from outside their body or that the world around them is unreal. Therefore, the nurse should expect behaviors such as feelings of detachment from one's body (A). Fear of gaining weight (B) is more indicative of an eating disorder, paralysis of a limb (C) could be related to neurological issues, and episodes of hypomania (D) are associated with mood disorders like bipolar disorder, but not specifically with depersonalization/derealization disorder.

3. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs can cause anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, due to their mechanism of action. Educating the patient about dry mouth can help them stay informed and manage this common side effect effectively during treatment. Hypertension (Choice A) is not a common side effect of TCAs. Diarrhea (Choice B) is more commonly associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) than with TCAs. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a common side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause weight gain.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Findings in a client with bipolar disorder typically include periods of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and flight of ideas. Anhedonia, characterized by the inability to experience pleasure, is more commonly associated with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect anhedonia in a client with suspected bipolar disorder. The other choices are characteristic features of bipolar disorder, such as mania or hypomania.

5. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

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