Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTS. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.
• B. You should take this medication at bedtime to help promote sleep.
• C. You will have fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication.
• D. You'll need to wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is 'You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.' One of the potential adverse effects of fluoxetine and other SSRIs is a decreased desire for intimacy. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this possible side effect to enhance understanding and promote informed decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not relate to common side effects of Fluoxetine that the nurse should include in the teaching.

2. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

3. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 1 kg in 24 hours
• B. Blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg
• C. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 200 mL in 8 hours indicates decreased kidney function and potential worsening heart failure. This finding should be reported promptly to the provider for further evaluation and management to prevent complications. Weight loss, while significant, may be expected with diuretic use. A blood pressure of 104/60 mm Hg is within normal range and can be managed. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is slightly low but not an immediate concern.

4. A client is being discharged and will start long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma treatment. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is an adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which leads to fluid retention. This can be monitored by tracking weight changes. Nervousness (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Bradycardia (Choice C) is not typically associated with prednisone use; in fact, tachycardia can be more common. Constipation (Choice D) is not a prominent adverse effect of prednisone.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 3 tablets
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To determine the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the prescribed dose of Haloperidol.

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