ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Relief of headache
- B. Relief of nausea
- C. Relief of abdominal pain
- D. Relief of heartburn
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Relief of abdominal pain is a key indicator of omeprazole effectively treating peptic ulcer disease. Omeprazole works by reducing stomach acid production, which helps alleviate abdominal pain associated with peptic ulcers. While relief of other symptoms like headache, nausea, and heartburn may also occur, the primary therapeutic goal of omeprazole in peptic ulcer disease is to reduce abdominal pain caused by gastric irritation. Therefore, the relief of abdominal pain is the most significant finding to indicate the effectiveness of omeprazole in this context. Choices A, B, and D may improve as a result of decreased stomach acid production, but they are not as specific or central to the therapeutic goal of treating peptic ulcer disease as the relief of abdominal pain.
2. How do ACE inhibitors work?
- A. Block the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone effects of angiotensin II at the receptor site
- B. Block stimulation of beta 1 and beta 2 at the receptor sites
- C. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.
3. A client with angina is being taught how to use nitroglycerin transdermal ointment. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the prior dose before applying a new dose.
- B. Rub the ointment directly into the skin until it is no longer visible.
- C. Cover the applied ointment with a clean gauze pad.
- D. Apply the ointment to the same skin area each time.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to remove the prior dose before applying a new one to prevent toxicity. Nitroglycerin ointment can cause adverse effects if accumulated doses are not removed. Rubbing the ointment until it's not visible or covering it with gauze may alter absorption. Applying it to the same area each time can lead to skin irritation or desensitization.
4. While caring for a client on long-term aspirin therapy, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Hemorrhagic stroke
- B. Thromboembolic stroke
- C. Iron deficiency anemia
- D. Neutropenia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Long-term aspirin therapy can increase the risk of hemorrhagic stroke due to its antiplatelet effects, which can lead to bleeding complications. Aspirin inhibits platelet function, potentially causing bleeding in the brain and increasing the risk of a hemorrhagic stroke. Choice B, thromboembolic stroke, is incorrect because aspirin therapy is actually used to prevent thromboembolic events by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Choices C and D, iron deficiency anemia and neutropenia, are not directly associated with long-term aspirin therapy.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. Lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL should be reported to the provider immediately. While a lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range, a creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL could suggest early signs of kidney dysfunction, especially concerning in a client on long-term lithium therapy. It is crucial to monitor kidney function closely because lithium can be nephrotoxic over time. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function and should prompt immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Potassium and sodium levels within normal range are not immediate concerns when compared to potential kidney issues.
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