ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Lean cuts of pork.
- B. Low-fat yogurt.
- C. White bread.
- D. Oatmeal.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.
2. A nurse manager is planning to promote client advocacy among staff in a medical unit. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage staff to implement the principle of paternalism when a client is having difficulty making a choice
- B. Tell staff to explain procedures to clients before obtaining informed consent
- C. Instruct unit staff to share personal experiences to help clients make decisions
- D. Develop a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Developing a system for staff members to report safety concerns in the client care environment is crucial to promoting client advocacy and ensuring client safety. This action empowers staff to identify and address potential safety issues, ultimately enhancing the quality of care provided. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests implementing paternalism, which involves making decisions for clients without their input, contradicting the principles of client advocacy. Choice B focuses on informed consent procedures, which are important but do not directly relate to promoting client advocacy among staff. Choice C, sharing personal experiences, may not always align with professional boundaries and can potentially bias clients' decision-making processes.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 92%
- B. Use of pursed-lip breathing
- C. Increased anterior-posterior chest diameter
- D. Productive cough with green sputum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A productive cough with green sputum can indicate a bacterial infection, which is a concern for clients with COPD. Reporting this finding to the provider is important for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are not as concerning in the context of COPD management. An oxygen saturation of 92% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients, pursed-lip breathing is a helpful technique for managing breathing difficulties in COPD, and an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter is a common finding in clients with COPD due to chronic air trapping.
4. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
- B. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
- C. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
- D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for cord care is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This helps prevent infection and promotes healing. Choice A is incorrect because the timing of when the cord stump falls off can vary, usually between 1-3 weeks. Choice B is incorrect as a black cord stump can be a normal part of the healing process, so it is unnecessary to contact the provider for this reason. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily is not recommended as it can delay healing and cause irritation.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
- A. Heart rate 58/min.
- B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dL.
- C. Hgb 14 g/dL.
- D. WBC count 2,900/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.
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