a nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is developing hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Positive Trousseau's sign. When a patient receiving furosemide is developing hypokalemia, they may exhibit a positive Trousseau's sign, an indication of low potassium levels. This sign is elicited by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes, resulting in carpal spasm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactive reflexes are associated with hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not specifically related to hypokalemia. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes are not typically seen in hypokalemia.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride. 0.9% sodium chloride is the only IV solution that is compatible with blood products and should be used to prime the tubing before a transfusion. Choice A is incorrect because vital signs should be monitored more frequently, typically every 15 minutes at the beginning of the transfusion. Choice C is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered over 2-4 hours, not 6 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the first 500 mL of blood should be infused slowly over 1-2 hours to monitor for any adverse reactions.

5. A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.

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