a nurse is providing care to a client with a spinal cord injury at t6 the client suddenly reports a pounding headache and blurred vision what action s
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam

1. A client with a spinal cord injury at T6 suddenly reports a pounding headache and blurred vision. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of a pounding headache and blurred vision are indicative of autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. The nurse's priority action should be to check the client's blood pressure as autonomic dysreflexia can lead to severe hypertension. Identifying and addressing this elevated blood pressure promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications such as seizures, stroke, or even death. Once the blood pressure is assessed and managed, further interventions can be implemented to address the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia.

2. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). What should the nurse include in the teaching about this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed carbidopa-levodopa should be informed that it may take several weeks for the medication to reach its full therapeutic effectiveness in managing Parkinson's disease symptoms. This delayed onset of action is important for patients to be aware of to prevent premature discontinuation of the medication due to perceived lack of efficacy.

3. A nursing student asks what essential hypertension is. What response by the registered nurse is best?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Essential hypertension, also known as primary or idiopathic hypertension, is the most common type of hypertension. It has no specific underlying cause such as an associated disease process. In contrast, hypertension that is due to another disease is referred to as secondary hypertension. Malignant hypertension is a severe and life-threatening form of hypertension characterized by rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation and potential end-organ damage.

4. A client is unconscious with a breathing pattern characterized by alternating periods of hyperventilation and apnea. The nurse should document that the client has which of the following respiratory alterations?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of deep, rapid breathing followed by periods of apnea. This pattern is often seen in clients with neurological or cardiac conditions. Kussmaul respirations are deep and rapid breaths often associated with metabolic acidosis. Apneustic respirations are characterized by prolonged inhalations with shortened exhalations and can indicate damage to the pons. Stridor is a high-pitched, noisy respiratory sound usually associated with upper airway obstruction. Therefore, in this scenario, the client's alternating pattern of hyperventilation and apnea aligns with Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

5. The trauma unit nurse has received a report on a client who has multiple injuries following a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with multiple injuries following a motor vehicle crash, the priority is to assess for any compromised airway or breathing. Evaluating chest expansion helps the nurse determine if the client is having any difficulty breathing, which is essential for immediate intervention to maintain adequate oxygenation. Checking pupillary response, assessing capillary refill, and checking the client's orientation to place and time are important assessments but are of lower priority compared to ensuring the client's airway and breathing are intact.

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