ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam
1. A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the use of a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and blow out as quickly as you can.
- B. Exhale slowly into the mouthpiece over 5 seconds.
- C. Take a slow deep breath before blowing into the mouthpiece.
- D. Blow into the mouthpiece at a steady rate for 3 seconds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for using a peak flow meter is to place the mouthpiece in your mouth and blow out as quickly as you can. This action helps measure the peak expiratory flow of the client. Choice B is incorrect because exhaling slowly does not provide an accurate peak flow reading. Choice C is incorrect as taking a slow deep breath before blowing interferes with obtaining an accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as blowing at a steady rate for 3 seconds may not reflect the peak expiratory flow accurately.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Increase oxytocin infusion.
- B. Decrease oxytocin infusion.
- C. Maintain oxytocin infusion.
- D. Discontinue oxytocin infusion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. With contractions occurring every 90 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, the contractions are too frequent and prolonged, which can lead to uterine rupture or fetal distress. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the situation, potentially causing harm to the mother and fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion might not be sufficient to address the issue, making discontinuation the most appropriate action to ensure the safety of both the client and the baby.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 95%.
- B. Productive cough with clear sputum.
- C. Respiratory rate of 22/min.
- D. Client reports dyspnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat a snack if my blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL.
- B. I will take my insulin if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
- C. I will check my blood glucose level once a week.
- D. I will take my insulin only when I feel symptoms of hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because consuming a snack when the blood glucose level is below 70 mg/dL helps prevent hypoglycemia in clients with diabetes mellitus. Choice B is incorrect because taking insulin when blood glucose is high (above 200 mg/dL) helps manage hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Choice C is incorrect as checking blood glucose levels once a week is insufficient for proper diabetes management, which typically requires more frequent monitoring. Choice D is incorrect because waiting for symptoms of hyperglycemia to take insulin can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. What risk factor should the nurse identify?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for the development of angina. Elevated lipid levels can lead to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries supplying the heart muscle with oxygenated blood, increasing the risk of angina. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because COPD, seizure disorder, and hyponatremia are not directly associated with an increased risk of angina.
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