a nurse is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.

2. A client is receiving chemotherapy and develops stomatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply warm compresses to the mouth. Stomatitis is an inflammation of the mucous lining in the mouth and can be a side effect of chemotherapy. Warm compresses can help soothe the affected area and promote healing. Choice B is incorrect because alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the mouth. Choice C is also a good intervention as increasing fluid intake can help keep the mouth moist and promote healing. However, the most direct intervention for soothing and healing the affected area is applying warm compresses. Choice D is incorrect because using a firm toothbrush can be too harsh and cause further irritation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed ferrous sulfate for the treatment of anemia. Which of the following instructions should be included in client teaching about this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse should instruct clients to take iron on an empty stomach, 1 hour before meals to maximize absorption. This enhances the medication's effectiveness. Option B is incorrect because dark green stool is a common side effect of iron supplements and does not necessarily indicate a problem. Option C is incorrect as dietary fiber intake does not need to be decreased while taking iron supplements. Option D is incorrect because antacids can interfere with the absorption of iron and should not be taken at the same time.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer bisacodyl suppository to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action when administering a bisacodyl suppository is to lubricate the index finger for easier insertion. Using a rectal applicator for insertion is not recommended for bisacodyl suppositories. Positioning the client supine with knees bent is not necessary for the administration of a bisacodyl suppository. While wearing gloves is important for infection control, sterile gloves are not required for this procedure.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

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