Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?

• A. INR
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. aPTT
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client with hypertension. Which of the following should the nurse assess prior to administering this medication?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood pressure. Before administering metoprolol, a beta-blocker commonly used to treat hypertension, the nurse should assess the client's blood pressure. Metoprolol works by lowering blood pressure and reducing the workload on the heart. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to ensure it is within the acceptable range to administer the medication safely. Choices A, B, and C (Temperature, Heart rate, Respiratory rate) are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically required before administering metoprolol for hypertension.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

4. A nurse is administering metformin to a client with type 2 diabetes. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Lactic acidosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use. Metformin is not known to cause hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Diarrhea is a common gastrointestinal side effect of metformin but is not as serious as lactic acidosis, which requires immediate medical attention.

5. A healthcare provider has just administered a wrong medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take next?

• A. No action is needed
• B. Report error to the provider
• C. Complete an institutional incident report
• D. Inform the client that the wrong medication was given

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario where a wrong medication has been administered, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to report the error to the provider. This action is essential to ensure that the provider is informed promptly, corrective measures are taken, and the client's well-being is safeguarded. Choice A is incorrect as taking no action could lead to serious consequences and compromise patient safety. Choice C, while important, should come after reporting the error to the provider. Choice D is not the immediate priority as the provider should first focus on addressing the error internally.

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