a nurse is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer ondansetron to a client. Which of the following therapeutic effects should the nurse expect from this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased nausea. Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic medication, which means it is used to relieve nausea and vomiting by blocking serotonin in the chemoreceptor trigger zone. Therefore, the nurse administering ondansetron should expect a therapeutic effect of decreased nausea. Choice B, increased appetite, is incorrect as ondansetron does not affect appetite. Choice C, increased heart rate, is incorrect as ondansetron does not have a direct effect on heart rate. Choice D, relief of headache, is also incorrect as the primary therapeutic effect of ondansetron is to alleviate nausea and vomiting, not headaches.

3. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.

4. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following client assessments should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial to assess for magnesium toxicity during therapy for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate can lead to neuromuscular blockade, reflected by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. Assessing bowel sounds (choice A) is important for gastrointestinal function but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Oxygen saturation (choice C) is vital for respiratory status but is not specifically linked to magnesium sulfate administration. Fluid balance (choice D) is essential but does not directly correlate with monitoring for complications of magnesium sulfate therapy in the context of preeclampsia.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.

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