Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?

• A. INR
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. aPTT
• D. Bilirubin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.

2. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following client assessments should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of therapy?

• A. Bowel sounds
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Oxygen saturation
• D. Fluid balance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial to assess for magnesium toxicity during therapy for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate can lead to neuromuscular blockade, reflected by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. Assessing bowel sounds (choice A) is important for gastrointestinal function but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Oxygen saturation (choice C) is vital for respiratory status but is not specifically linked to magnesium sulfate administration. Fluid balance (choice D) is essential but does not directly correlate with monitoring for complications of magnesium sulfate therapy in the context of preeclampsia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client taking ciprofloxacin for an infection. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the client education?

• A. Constipation
• B. Tendon rupture
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tendon rupture. Ciprofloxacin belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, which is associated with the adverse effect of tendon rupture. Tendon rupture is a severe but rare side effect that can occur with the use of ciprofloxacin. Educating the client about this potential adverse effect is crucial to promote awareness and early recognition of symptoms, such as tendon pain, swelling, or inflammation. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and are less relevant for client education in this scenario.

4. A nurse is providing care to a client with staphylococcus epidermidis who is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with the antibiotic therapy.

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Constipation
• C. Infusion reaction
• D. Immunosuppression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Infusion reaction. Vancomycin can cause infusion reactions like 'Red Man Syndrome,' which involves rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Hepatotoxicity (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of vancomycin. Constipation (choice B) is not typically associated with vancomycin use. Immunosuppression (choice D) is not a direct adverse effect of vancomycin therapy.

5. A 55-year-old client has levothyroxine ordered. Which of the below past medical history concerns may contraindicate with her medication management of hypothyroidism?

• A. Scleroderma
• B. Osteoporosis
• C. Asthma
• D. Peripheral Vascular Disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a concern with levothyroxine as it can increase the risk for fractures, particularly in older adults. Levothyroxine treatment can exacerbate bone loss in individuals with osteoporosis. Choices A, C, and D are not directly contraindicated with levothyroxine therapy for hypothyroidism.

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