Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider has just administered a wrong medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take next?

• A. No action is needed
• B. Report error to the provider
• C. Complete an institutional incident report
• D. Inform the client that the wrong medication was given

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario where a wrong medication has been administered, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to report the error to the provider. This action is essential to ensure that the provider is informed promptly, corrective measures are taken, and the client's well-being is safeguarded. Choice A is incorrect as taking no action could lead to serious consequences and compromise patient safety. Choice C, while important, should come after reporting the error to the provider. Choice D is not the immediate priority as the provider should first focus on addressing the error internally.

2. A 52-year-old client with a history of angina has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects is not associated with this therapy?

• A. Tolerance
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Headache
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Productive cough. Nitroglycerin therapy can lead to adverse effects such as tolerance, orthostatic hypotension, and headache. However, it is not known to cause a productive cough. Tolerance may develop over time, requiring dose adjustments. Orthostatic hypotension can occur due to vasodilation effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Headache is a common side effect due to vasodilation of cranial blood vessels. Productive cough is not a recognized adverse effect associated with transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
• C. Slow the infusion rate
• D. Administer diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client with hypertension. Which of the following should the nurse assess prior to administering this medication?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood pressure. Before administering metoprolol, a beta-blocker commonly used to treat hypertension, the nurse should assess the client's blood pressure. Metoprolol works by lowering blood pressure and reducing the workload on the heart. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to ensure it is within the acceptable range to administer the medication safely. Choices A, B, and C (Temperature, Heart rate, Respiratory rate) are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically required before administering metoprolol for hypertension.

5. A client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain has a decreased respiratory rate from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Flumazenil
• B. Naloxone
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer as it is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Hydromorphone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression at high doses. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competes with opioids at receptor sites, reversing the effects of opioids like hydromorphone. Flumazenil (Choice A) is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for toxin ingestion to prevent absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not indicated for opioid overdose. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and would not be the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.

Similar Questions