Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving gentamicin therapy. Which of the following client assessments is a priority for the healthcare professional to monitor for an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Urinary output
• B. Serum glucose
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Hearing acuity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hearing acuity. Gentamicin is known to be ototoxic, which means it can cause damage to the auditory system leading to hearing loss. Monitoring hearing acuity is crucial to detect early signs of hearing impairment. Monitoring urinary output (choice A) is important for assessing kidney function but is not directly related to gentamicin's adverse effects. Monitoring serum glucose (choice B) and respiratory rate (choice C) are not specifically associated with gentamicin therapy.

2. A client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain has a decreased respiratory rate from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Flumazenil
• B. Naloxone
• C. Activated charcoal
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer as it is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Hydromorphone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression at high doses. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competes with opioids at receptor sites, reversing the effects of opioids like hydromorphone. Flumazenil (Choice A) is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for toxin ingestion to prevent absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not indicated for opioid overdose. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and would not be the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following client histories is a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

• A. Recent surgery
• B. Peptic ulcer disease
• C. Bleeding disorder
• D. Uncontrolled hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Uncontrolled hypertension. Clopidogrel should not be administered to clients with uncontrolled hypertension due to the increased risk of bleeding. Recent surgery, peptic ulcer disease, and bleeding disorders are not absolute contraindications for clopidogrel administration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Vomiting
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.

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