ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A client has been prescribed isosorbide mononitrate. Which of the following should the nurse include in the client education related to this medication?
- A. This medication is prescribed for long-term therapy prophylaxis against anginal attacks
- B. Do not crush this medication
- C. Take the medication in the evening after dinner
- D. Do not take an additional tablet if you experience chest pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because isosorbide mononitrate is used for long-term prophylaxis against anginal attacks. Choice B is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate should not be crushed. Choice C does not specify a particular time for medication administration. Choice D is incorrect because isosorbide mononitrate is not meant to be taken as needed for chest pain; it is part of a long-term therapy plan.
2. A nurse is caring for a client taking ciprofloxacin for an infection. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the client education?
- A. Constipation
- B. Tendon rupture
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Nasal congestion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tendon rupture. Ciprofloxacin belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, which is associated with the adverse effect of tendon rupture. Tendon rupture is a severe but rare side effect that can occur with the use of ciprofloxacin. Educating the client about this potential adverse effect is crucial to promote awareness and early recognition of symptoms, such as tendon pain, swelling, or inflammation. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and are less relevant for client education in this scenario.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Increased urine output
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.
4. A nurse is administering metformin to a client with type 2 diabetes. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Lactic acidosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use. Metformin is not known to cause hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Diarrhea is a common gastrointestinal side effect of metformin but is not as serious as lactic acidosis, which requires immediate medical attention.
5. A 52-year-old client with a history of angina has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects is not associated with this therapy?
- A. Tolerance
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Headache
- D. Productive cough
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Productive cough. Nitroglycerin therapy can lead to adverse effects such as tolerance, orthostatic hypotension, and headache. However, it is not known to cause a productive cough. Tolerance may develop over time, requiring dose adjustments. Orthostatic hypotension can occur due to vasodilation effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Headache is a common side effect due to vasodilation of cranial blood vessels. Productive cough is not a recognized adverse effect associated with transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.
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