Nursing Elites

1. A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client. Which of the following findings indicates the client may be at risk for an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia, which is a common adverse effect. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with the adverse effects of furosemide. Hypertension is a condition that furosemide is often used to treat, increased urine output is an expected effect of furosemide, and hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of this medication.

3. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication regimen. Which of the following medications places the client at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium channel blockers
• B. Potassium-sparing diuretics
• C. Beta blockers
• D. Loop diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Loop diuretics. Loop diuretics can lead to hypokalemia, which increases the risk for digoxin toxicity. Loop diuretics cause potassium loss, and hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcium channel blockers, potassium-sparing diuretics, and beta blockers do not directly increase the risk of digoxin toxicity.

4. Before administering blood products, which action should be taken?

• A. Assess the client's temperature
• B. Document client response
• C. Prime IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride
• D. Administer epinephrine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Before administering blood products, the client's temperature must be assessed to establish a baseline and monitor for transfusion reactions. Choice B is incorrect because documenting client response should occur after administering the blood products. Choice C is incorrect as priming IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride is not directly related to assessing the client before administering blood products. Choice D is incorrect because administering epinephrine is not a routine action before administering blood products.

5. A client has been prescribed lisinopril. Which of the following medication interactions should the nurse instruct this client about?

• A. Potassium supplements
• B. Ciprofloxacin
• C. Escitalopram
• D. Magnesium supplements

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium supplements. Clients taking lisinopril should avoid potassium supplements and potassium-sparing diuretics due to the risk of hyperkalemia. This interaction can lead to dangerously high levels of potassium in the blood, which can be harmful. Choice B, Ciprofloxacin, is not typically associated with a significant interaction with lisinopril. Choice C, Escitalopram, is an antidepressant and does not have a known significant interaction with lisinopril regarding potassium levels. Choice D, Magnesium supplements, are generally safe to take with lisinopril and do not pose a significant risk of hyperkalemia.

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