Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client taking ciprofloxacin for an infection. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the client education?

• A. Constipation
• B. Tendon rupture
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tendon rupture. Ciprofloxacin belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, which is associated with the adverse effect of tendon rupture. Tendon rupture is a severe but rare side effect that can occur with the use of ciprofloxacin. Educating the client about this potential adverse effect is crucial to promote awareness and early recognition of symptoms, such as tendon pain, swelling, or inflammation. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and are less relevant for client education in this scenario.

2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse take while caring for this client?

• A. Advise the client to use the pump sparingly to prevent addiction
• B. Encourage the client to use the PCA before dressing changes
• C. Encourage the client's family to administer PCA while the client is sleeping
• D. Increase the client's 4-hour limit as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because encouraging the client to use the PCA before dressing changes helps in managing pain proactively. Choice A is incorrect as PCA is a safe method of pain control when used appropriately, and the nurse should not suggest using it sparingly. Choice C is incorrect as only the client should operate the PCA to ensure they are in control of their pain management. Choice D is incorrect as changing the PCA limit without proper assessment and orders from the healthcare provider can lead to adverse effects.

3. A client is prescribed HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, atorvastatin. Which of the following should be monitored while this medication is prescribed?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Renal function tests
• C. Visual acuity screening
• D. Hearing screenings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Atorvastatin, an HMG CoA reductase inhibitor, can lead to hepatotoxicity, making it essential to monitor liver function tests regularly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atorvastatin primarily affects the liver, not the kidneys, vision, or hearing.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?

• A. Anorexia and weakness
• B. Hyperactivity and hunger
• C. Tachycardia and increased urination
• D. Polyphagia and polydipsia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anorexia and weakness. These symptoms are early indicators of potential digitalis toxicity. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, which can be a sign of toxicity, and weakness can indicate an issue with digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity and hunger, tachycardia and increased urination, as well as polyphagia and polydipsia are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. At what angle should the nurse administer the medication using the ventrogluteal site?

• A. a 45-degree angle
• B. a 60-degree angle
• C. a 75-degree angle
• D. a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site should be administered at a 90-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication reaches the muscle tissue effectively. Angles less than 90 degrees can cause subcutaneous injection instead of intramuscular, leading to slower absorption of the medication. Angles greater than 90 degrees risk hitting bone or nerves, causing unnecessary pain or injury. Therefore, the correct angle for administering intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site is 90 degrees.

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