Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes has a new prescription for 14 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously at breakfast daily. What is the total number of units of insulin that should be prepared in the insulin syringe?

• A. 42 units
• B. 14 units
• C. 28 units
• D. 32 units

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total number of units of insulin, you need to add the 14 units of regular insulin to the 28 units of NPH insulin, which equals 42 units. Therefore, the nurse should prepare 42 units of insulin in the syringe for the client.

2. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?

• A. Upper endoscopy
• B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
• C. Barium swallow
• D. Esophageal manometry

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.

3. In planning the turning schedule for a bedfast client, it is most important for the nurse to consider what assessment finding?

• A. 4+ pitting edema of both lower extremities.
• B. A Braden risk assessment scale rating score of ten.
• C. Warm, dry skin with a fever of 100° F.
• D. Hypoactive bowel sounds with infrequent bowel movements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low Braden score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcers, making regular turning crucial to prevent skin breakdown.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent autonomic dysreflexia?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Keep the client's room warm.
• C. Ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly.
• D. Limit the client's intake of high-fiber foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent autonomic dysreflexia in clients with spinal cord injuries, it is crucial to ensure the client's bladder is emptied regularly. Bladder distention is a common trigger for autonomic dysreflexia in these clients. Keeping the bladder empty helps prevent the complications associated with autonomic dysreflexia, such as dangerously high blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Restricting fluid intake can lead to dehydration, keeping the room warm is not directly related to preventing autonomic dysreflexia, and limiting high-fiber foods is not a primary intervention for this condition.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
• B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
• C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
• D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.

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