Nursing Elites

1. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. To reduce pain.
• B. To decrease anxiety.
• C. To reduce cardiac workload.
• D. To increase respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Barrel-shaped chest.
• B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical finding in a client with COPD. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications and may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation levels and prevent further respiratory distress. Monitoring and maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and preventing respiratory failure.

3. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?

• A. Brudzinski's sign
• B. Positive Babinski reflex
• C. Kernig's sign
• D. Both A and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.

4. A 40-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. He has a history of Crohn's disease. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Crohn's disease flare

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, along with the history of Crohn's disease, and the laboratory findings of low hemoglobin and elevated ESR, strongly suggest a Crohn's disease flare. These clinical manifestations are classic features of a flare-up in a patient with a known history of Crohn's disease.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. What is the purpose of this medication?

• A. To lower blood sugar levels
• B. To reduce ammonia levels
• C. To treat liver inflammation
• D. To improve bile flow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lactulose is prescribed to reduce ammonia levels in clients with liver cirrhosis. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, which in turn traps ammonia in the colon and helps its elimination from the body through stool, thereby reducing the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. Choice A is incorrect because lactulose does not lower blood sugar levels. Choice C is incorrect as lactulose is not used to treat liver inflammation. Choice D is incorrect as lactulose does not improve bile flow.

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