ATI LPN
ATI Learning System PN Medical Surgical Final Quizlet
1. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?
- A. To reduce pain.
- B. To decrease anxiety.
- C. To reduce cardiac workload.
- D. To increase respiratory rate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.
2. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?
- A. Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider.'
- B. Increase your intake of iodine-rich foods, such as seafood and dairy products.'
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.'
- D. You may experience weight gain and fatigue as side effects of the medication.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) can suppress bone marrow function, increasing the risk of infection, so it is important to report signs of infection promptly.
3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Bowel sounds active in all quadrants.
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Rigid, board-like abdomen.
- D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A rigid, board-like abdomen is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease that can lead to sepsis and requires immediate intervention. This finding indicates a potential emergency situation that needs urgent medical attention to prevent further complications.
4. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be
- A. Liver biopsy
- B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
- C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
- D. Colonoscopy with biopsies
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.
5. When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?
- A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
- B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
- C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
- D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Surgical repair of hypospadias is recommended to be performed before the child is potty-trained to prevent complications. Early correction helps in achieving better outcomes and reduces the risk of issues related to urination and development of the genitalia.
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