Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. Report any signs of infection, such as sore throat or fever, to your healthcare provider.'
• B. Increase your intake of iodine-rich foods, such as seafood and dairy products.'
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption.'
• D. You may experience weight gain and fatigue as side effects of the medication.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil (PTU) can suppress bone marrow function, increasing the risk of infection, so it is important to report signs of infection promptly.

2. A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Fever and chills.
• C. Increased urine output.
• D. Bradycardia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction. These symptoms indicate that the body is having a response to the transfused blood, possibly due to incompatibility or an immune reaction. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic signs of a transfusion reaction. It is crucial to recognize symptoms of a transfusion reaction promptly to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Muscle rigidity.
• D. Drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity is a crucial finding to report immediately as it can indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. NMS is characterized by muscle rigidity, high fever, autonomic dysfunction, and altered mental status. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications or death.

4. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase cardiac output
• B. Reduce fluid retention
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which pre-procedure instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Maintain a low-protein diet for 24 hours before the biopsy.
• B. Avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy.
• C. Drink plenty of fluids before the procedure.
• D. Take your routine medications with a full glass of water before the biopsy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pre-procedure instruction the nurse should provide to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) scheduled for a renal biopsy is to avoid taking anticoagulant medications for one week before the biopsy. This instruction is crucial to reduce the risk of bleeding during the procedure, as anticoagulants can increase the chance of bleeding complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining a low-protein diet, drinking plenty of fluids, or taking routine medications with water are not specifically related to reducing the risk of bleeding associated with a renal biopsy in a client with CKD.

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