Nursing Elites

1. The client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications by the nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of spicy foods.
• B. Avoid lying down immediately after eating.
• C. Consume a high-fat diet.
• D. Drink caffeinated beverages with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding lying down immediately after eating is essential in managing GERD as it helps prevent reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in keeping stomach contents down. Lying down can worsen symptoms by allowing acid to flow back into the esophagus.

2. A 65-year-old female client arrives in the emergency department with shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse accidentally administers 10 mg of morphine sulfate instead of the prescribed 4 mg. Later, the client's respiratory rate is 10 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation is 98%, and she states her pain has subsided. What is the legal status of the nurse?

• A. The nurse is guilty of negligence and will be sued.
• B. The client would not be able to prove malpractice in court.
• C. The nurse is protected by the Good Samaritan Act.
• D. The healthcare provider should have given the morphine sulfate dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because, in this scenario, the client would not be able to prove malpractice in court. Despite the nurse administering a higher dose of morphine than prescribed, the client's respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, and pain relief indicate that no harm resulted from the error. Therefore, the client would not have legal grounds to pursue a malpractice case against the nurse.

3. An older adult with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease has been experiencing fecal incontinence, with no recent change in stool character noted by the nurse. What is the nurse's most appropriate intervention?

• A. Keep a food diary to identify foods that worsen the client's symptoms
• B. Provide the client with a bland, low-residue diet
• C. Toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis
• D. Collaborate with the primary provider to secure an order for loperamide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for an older adult with Alzheimer's disease experiencing fecal incontinence and no change in stool character is to toilet the client on a frequent, scheduled basis. Scheduled toileting can help manage incontinence by establishing a routine for bowel movements, which may aid in reducing episodes of fecal incontinence.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. INR of 2.5.
• B. PTT of 45 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

5. When creating a care plan for a 70-year-old obese client admitted to the postsurgical unit following a colon resection, the client's age and increased body mass index put them at increased risk for which complication in the postoperative period?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Azotemia
• C. Falls
• D. Infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infection is a significant risk in obese, elderly clients due to decreased immunity and increased healing time, making them more susceptible to postoperative infections. Proper infection prevention measures should be a priority in the care plan for this client to minimize this risk.

Similar Questions