ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased peripheral edema.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Decreased urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.
2. A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?
- A. Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
- B. Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
- C. Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
- D. Mini-Mental State Examination
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). Since alcohol abuse is a common factor associated with pancreatitis, screening for alcohol use is crucial. The SMAST-G is a validated short-form alcoholism screening instrument tailored for older adults. If the patient screens positively on the SMAST-G, then the CIWA-Ar would be useful for further assessment. The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) provides information on substance use in general, not specific to alcohol. The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, not alcohol abuse.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
- B. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal to enhance absorption.
- D. Skip a dose if you feel dizzy or lightheaded.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed digoxin is to take their pulse before each dose and hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. This is crucial to prevent digoxin toxicity, as digoxin can cause adverse effects when the pulse rate is too low. Monitoring the pulse regularly ensures safety and appropriate management of the medication.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Platelet count.
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
- D. Fibrinogen level.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What advice should the nurse give regarding insulin administration?
- A. Skip your insulin dose until you can eat.
- B. Take your insulin as prescribed, but monitor your blood glucose closely.
- C. Reduce your insulin dose by half.
- D. Only take your long-acting insulin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct advice for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing nausea and vomiting is to take insulin as prescribed but monitor blood glucose closely. It is essential to continue insulin therapy even if not eating normally to prevent complications from high blood sugar levels. Skipping insulin doses can lead to dangerous fluctuations in blood glucose levels. Reducing the insulin dose without proper guidance can also result in uncontrolled blood sugar. Taking only long-acting insulin may not provide adequate coverage for mealtime blood sugar elevation. Therefore, the best course of action is to take prescribed insulin doses while closely monitoring blood glucose levels.
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