Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Decreased peripheral edema.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

2. A client with a history of chronic alcohol use is admitted with confusion and an unsteady gait. Which deficiency should the nurse suspect?

• A. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• B. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)
• C. Folic acid
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Thiamine (Vitamin B1). Chronic alcohol use can lead to thiamine deficiency, which can result in neurological symptoms such as confusion and an unsteady gait. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function and nerve conduction, and its deficiency is common in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency can also present with neurological symptoms, but in this case, the patient's history of chronic alcohol use points more towards thiamine deficiency. Folic acid deficiency typically presents with symptoms like fatigue and megaloblastic anemia. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone health issues rather than neurological symptoms.

3. A 35-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. She has a history of recurrent mouth ulcers and a perianal fistula. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Crohn's disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including recurrent mouth ulcers, perianal fistula, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss strongly suggests Crohn's disease. These extra-intestinal manifestations are characteristic of Crohn's disease, a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis primarily involves the colon, while irritable bowel syndrome is a functional disorder without the inflammatory component seen in Crohn's disease. Diverticulitis typically presents with localized left lower quadrant pain and is less likely to cause mouth ulcers and perianal fistulas.

4. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Bounding erratic pulse.
• B. Regularly irregular pulse.
• C. Thready irregular pulse.
• D. No palpable pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.

5. After a client's neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the superior laryngeal nerve, what area of assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The client's swallowing ability
• B. The client's ability to speak
• C. The client's management of secretions
• D. The client's airway patency

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Damage to the superior laryngeal nerve can lead to swallowing difficulties due to impaired laryngeal function. As a result, assessing the client's swallowing ability is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure proper nutrition and hydration.

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