Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Decreased peripheral edema.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

2. A recently widowed middle-aged female client presents to the psychiatric clinic for evaluation and tells the nurse that she has 'little reason to live.' She describes one previous suicidal gesture and admits to having a gun in her home. To maintain the client's confidentiality and to help ensure her safety, which action is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to remove the gun from her possession.
• B. Notify the client's healthcare provider of the availability of the weapon.
• C. Contact a person of the client's choosing to remove the weapon from the home.
• D. Call the local police department and have the weapon removed from the home.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial to maintain the client's confidentiality while ensuring her safety. Contacting a person chosen by the client to remove the weapon from her home is the best course of action. This approach respects the client's autonomy and helps reduce the risk of harm without involving external authorities unnecessarily.

3. Why is a low-protein diet recommended for a patient with renal failure?

• A. To prevent fluid overload
• B. To reduce nitrogenous waste
• C. To maintain electrolyte balance
• D. To prevent hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-protein diet is crucial for patients with renal failure to reduce the generation of nitrogenous waste products like urea and creatinine, which the compromised kidneys struggle to eliminate effectively. By limiting protein intake, the production of these waste products is decreased, lessening the burden on the kidneys and helping to manage the progression of renal failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a low-protein diet primarily aims to reduce the workload on the kidneys by decreasing the production of nitrogenous waste, not to prevent fluid overload, maintain electrolyte balance, or prevent hyperglycemia.

4. What is the primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis?

• A. Decreased bile production
• B. Increased bilirubin levels
• C. Hepatic inflammation
• D. Portal hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis is primarily caused by increased bilirubin levels. In liver cirrhosis, impaired liver function leads to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, resulting in jaundice. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced from the breakdown of red blood cells, and its elevation is a common manifestation of liver dysfunction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While decreased bile production can contribute to jaundice, in liver cirrhosis, the key factor is the buildup of bilirubin due to liver dysfunction, not a decrease in bile production. Hepatic inflammation and portal hypertension are associated with liver cirrhosis but are not the primary causes of jaundice in this context.

5. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitor
• B. Endoscopic balloon dilatation
• C. Sucralfate
• D. Esophageal resection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.

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