Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is receiving intravenous furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Decreased peripheral edema.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased peripheral edema.' In a client with heart failure receiving furosemide, decreased peripheral edema indicates that the medication is effectively reducing fluid overload. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body eliminate excess fluid and salt through increased urine output, leading to a reduction in peripheral edema, which is a common symptom of heart failure. Monitoring and recognizing this improvement in edema are crucial in managing heart failure effectively.

2. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

• A. Soft, spongy fundus.
• B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
• C. Pulse rate of 56 BPM.
• D. Unilateral lower leg pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.

3. When a client reports being allergic to penicillin, which question should the nurse ask to gather more information?

• A. Are you allergic to any other medications?
• B. How often have you taken penicillin in the past?
• C. Is anyone else in your family allergic to penicillin?
• D. What happens to you when you take penicillin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Questioning the client about the specific allergic reaction to penicillin is crucial for assessing the severity and type of allergic response, aiding in determining appropriate treatment and avoiding potential adverse reactions.

4. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the patient for the procedure?

• A. Have the patient void immediately before the procedure.
• B. Position the patient upright or semi-Fowler's in bed.
• C. Administer a full liquid diet.
• D. Encourage the patient to ambulate for 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preparation for a paracentesis in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites includes having the patient void immediately before the procedure. This is important to reduce the risk of bladder puncture during the paracentesis. Positioning for a paracentesis is typically upright or semi-Fowler's, not flat in bed. Administering a full liquid diet or encouraging ambulation for 30 minutes are not directly related to preparing a patient for a paracentesis procedure.

5. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I know it may take several weeks before I start feeling better.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I will stop taking the medication as soon as I feel better.
• D. I should take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.

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