the nurse is assessing a client with suspected meningitis which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. When assessing a client with suspected meningitis, which finding is indicative of meningeal irritation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Both Brudzinski's sign and Kernig's sign are classic signs of meningeal irritation, commonly associated with meningitis. Brudzinski's sign is positive when flexing the neck causes involuntary flexion of the hips and knees due to irritation of the meninges. Kernig's sign is positive when there is pain and resistance with knee extension after hip flexion, indicating meningeal irritation or inflammation. The Babinski reflex, mentioned in choice B, is a test used to assess upper motor neuron damage and is not specific to meningitis. Therefore, choices A and C are the correct options as they are indicative of meningeal irritation in a suspected case of meningitis.

2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical finding in a client with COPD. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications and may require immediate intervention, such as adjusting oxygen therapy to improve oxygenation levels and prevent further respiratory distress. Monitoring and maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and preventing respiratory failure.

3. A client with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is at risk for which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to liver cirrhosis due to long-term liver damage. Alcohol consumption over time can cause inflammation and scarring of the liver, eventually leading to cirrhosis. This condition can severely impact liver function and may progress to liver failure if not addressed.

4. A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a direct and assertive approach that can help de-escalate the situation safely. It sets clear boundaries and expectations for the client's behavior, which may help reduce agitation and aggression in this scenario. Offering a day pass if the client calms down (Choice A) might reinforce the aggressive behavior. Putting the client's behavior on extinction (Choice B) involves not reinforcing the behavior, but it may not directly address the immediate safety concern. Decreasing the volume on the television set (Choice C) does not address the client's behavior directly and may not effectively manage the escalating situation.

5. A 35-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 35-year-old man with fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of the skin, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels is classic for Addison's disease. These findings are consistent with primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate cortisol. In Addison's disease, the adrenal cortex is damaged, leading to decreased cortisol production and elevated levels of ACTH. This results in symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation due to increased ACTH production stimulating melanocytes. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common electrolyte abnormalities seen in Addison's disease due to aldosterone deficiency. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is Addison's disease.

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