Nursing Elites

1. A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase energy levels
• B. Induce sedation
• C. Elevate mood
• D. Reduce anxiety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that primarily works by reducing anxiety. It achieves this by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which leads to a calming effect on the individual. Therefore, the primary action of alprazolam is to decrease anxiety levels rather than increase energy, induce sedation, or elevate mood.

2. While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?

• A. Continue the magnesium sulfate infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the magnesium sulfate infusion by one-half.
• C. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.

3. A 50-year-old man presents with progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus. Imaging reveals a mass in the head of the pancreas. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Pancreatic cancer
• B. Chronic pancreatitis
• C. Gallstones
• D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presentation of progressive jaundice, dark urine, and pruritus along with a pancreatic mass, particularly in the head of the pancreas, strongly suggests pancreatic cancer as the most likely diagnosis. These symptoms are classic for obstructive jaundice caused by a mass in the head of the pancreas, making pancreatic cancer the most fitting choice.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with hyperglycemia. Which laboratory result requires the most immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 350 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 2.8 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L.
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 20 mEq/L.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is critically low and can cause cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia is a life-threatening condition that needs prompt correction to prevent serious complications. High serum glucose levels (choice A) are a concern in diabetes but do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to severe hypokalemia. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum bicarbonate levels (choice D) are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention.

5. A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except

• A. H. pylori has been associated with gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
• B. Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment
• C. Triple drug therapy has been shown to be more effective than dual drug therapy
• D. If her H. pylori IgG antibody titer was elevated prior to therapy, it can be used to monitor treatment efficacy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.

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