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ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. A patient with an anxiety disorder is prescribed alprazolam. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increase energy levels
- B. Induce sedation
- C. Elevate mood
- D. Reduce anxiety
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine that primarily works by reducing anxiety. It achieves this by enhancing the inhibitory effects of the neurotransmitter GABA in the brain, which leads to a calming effect on the individual. Therefore, the primary action of alprazolam is to decrease anxiety levels rather than increase energy, induce sedation, or elevate mood.
2. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL.
- B. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) of 200 mg/dL.
- C. Triglycerides of 150 mg/dL.
- D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 40 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An LDL level of 200 mg/dL is significantly elevated and requires immediate intervention to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). High LDL levels contribute to the development and progression of atherosclerosis, which can lead to complications like heart attacks and strokes. Lowering LDL levels is a key goal in managing CAD and preventing further cardiovascular damage. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL, triglycerides of 150 mg/dL, and HDL of 40 mg/dL are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate risk that necessitates urgent intervention.
3. A client who underwent a total hip replacement is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid crossing your legs at the knees.
- B. Sit only in low chairs for comfort.
- C. Bend at the waist to pick up objects.
- D. Sleep on the affected side to prevent discomfort.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to avoid crossing the legs at the knees. This advice helps prevent dislocation of the new hip joint, which is a common concern after a total hip replacement surgery. Crossing the legs can place stress on the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. It is important for the client to follow this precaution to promote proper healing and reduce complications postoperatively.
4. A 65-year-old woman presents with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and a history of long-standing heartburn. She has been on proton-pump inhibitors for years, but her symptoms have worsened. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Peptic stricture
- B. Esophageal cancer
- C. Achalasia
- D. Esophageal spasm
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and worsening symptoms despite long-term use of proton-pump inhibitors raises suspicion for esophageal cancer, especially in a patient with a history of chronic heartburn. Esophageal cancer should be considered in this scenario due to the concerning symptoms and lack of improvement despite appropriate medical management.
5. A 60-year-old man presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
- C. Diabetes insipidus
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of a 60-year-old man with fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, hyperglycemia, and ketonuria strongly suggests type 1 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes typically presents with acute symptoms due to absolute insulin deficiency, leading to hyperglycemia and ketonuria. Conversely, type 2 diabetes often presents more insidiously and is associated with relative insulin deficiency and insulin resistance. Diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive thirst and excretion of large amounts of dilute urine, is due to problems with antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and is not associated with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Hyperthyroidism, while also presenting with symptoms like fatigue, does not typically manifest with hyperglycemia or ketonuria. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, the most likely diagnosis in this case is type 1 diabetes mellitus.
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