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ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increase cardiac output
- B. Reduce fluid retention
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.
2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Dry cough.
- B. Weight gain.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.
3. A 46-year-old man with a history of cirrhosis is brought in by his wife because he has been acting strangely. On examination, he is disoriented, ataxic, and has slurred speech. He is also hyperreflexic. His white blood cell count is normal. His hematocrit is 34%. Coagulation times are elevated. His ammonia level is normal. Which of the following statements regarding his management is correct?
- A. He should be treated with a low-protein diet and lactulose
- B. Lorazepam is not the drug of choice to control his behavior
- C. He should not be placed on gentamicin prophylactically to prevent the development of peritonitis
- D. If the patient complains of pain, acetaminophen should be avoided and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents should be used
Correct answer: A
Rationale: This patient presents with symptoms consistent with hepatic encephalopathy. Despite having a normal ammonia level, he should be treated with lactulose and a low-protein diet as recommended for stage 2 hepatic encephalopathy. The normal ammonia level does not exclude the diagnosis, as it lacks sensitivity and specificity. Medications like lorazepam, gentamicin, and NSAIDs should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects in patients with liver disease. Acetaminophen should also be avoided in such patients.
4. A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except
- A. H. pylori has been associated with gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
- B. Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment
- C. Triple drug therapy has been shown to be more effective than dual drug therapy
- D. If her H. pylori IgG antibody titer was elevated prior to therapy, it can be used to monitor treatment efficacy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.
5. A client with left-sided heart failure is experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. Which position should the nurse place the client in to relieve these symptoms?
- A. High Fowler's position.
- B. Supine position.
- C. Trendelenburg position.
- D. Sims' position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Placing the client in High Fowler's position is beneficial for individuals with left-sided heart failure experiencing dyspnea and orthopnea. This position helps to reduce venous return, decrease preload, and enhance respiratory function, thereby relieving the symptoms mentioned. Choice B, the supine position, is not recommended as it may exacerbate dyspnea and orthopnea by increasing preload. Choice C, the Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves the feet being positioned higher than the head, which is not suitable for heart failure patients. Choice D, the Sims' position, is a lateral position used for rectal examination and is not indicated for relieving dyspnea and orthopnea in heart failure.
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