a patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide what is the primary action of this medication
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1. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

2. When providing dietary instructions to a client with cirrhosis, which dietary restriction is important for the nurse to emphasize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-sodium diet is crucial for clients with cirrhosis to manage fluid retention and ascites. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation in the body, leading to complications. By restricting sodium intake, the client can help reduce fluid retention and maintain better overall health. Therefore, emphasizing a low-sodium diet is essential in the dietary management of cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not the primary focus for cirrhosis management. While protein restriction may be necessary in advanced stages of liver disease, it is not the main dietary concern in cirrhosis. High-fiber and high-calcium diets are generally beneficial for overall health but are not specifically emphasized in cirrhosis management.

3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tardive dyskinesia. Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that can lead to tardive dyskinesia, a side effect characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face and body. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial to provide timely interventions and prevent further complications.

4. A 40-year-old man presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. He has a history of Crohn's disease. Laboratory tests reveal low hemoglobin and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of abdominal pain, diarrhea, weight loss, along with the history of Crohn's disease, and the laboratory findings of low hemoglobin and elevated ESR, strongly suggest a Crohn's disease flare. These clinical manifestations are classic features of a flare-up in a patient with a known history of Crohn's disease.

5. What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A pulse rate of 56 BPM can be considered a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Postpartum bradycardia can occur due to increased stroke volume and decreased vascular resistance after delivery. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's vital signs and recognize that a lower pulse rate can be expected in the immediate postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a soft, spongy fundus may indicate uterine atony, saturating two perineal pads per hour is excessive bleeding, and unilateral lower leg pain could suggest deep vein thrombosis, all of which would require further assessment and intervention.

Similar Questions

A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?
A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes is preparing for discharge. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
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A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. What is the primary purpose of this medication?

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