ATI LPN
ATI Adult Medical Surgical
1. An elderly female client comes to the clinic for a regular check-up. The client tells the nurse that she has increased her daily doses of acetaminophen (Tylenol) for the past month to control joint pain. Based on this client's comment, what previous lab values should the nurse compare with today's lab report?
- A. Look at last quarter's hemoglobin and hematocrit to assess for dehydration.
- B. Look for an increase in today's LDH compared to the previous one to assess for possible liver damage.
- C. Expect to find an increase in today's APTT compared to last quarter's due to bleeding.
- D. Determine if there is a decrease in serum potassium due to renal compromise.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client increases their daily doses of acetaminophen for joint pain, it raises concerns about possible liver damage due to acetaminophen overdose. LDH (Lactate Dehydrogenase) levels can indicate liver function, so comparing today's levels with previous ones can help assess for liver damage caused by acetaminophen overuse.
2. A highly successful individual presents to the community mental health center complaining of sleeplessness and anxiety over their financial status. What action should the nurse take to assist this client in diminishing their anxiety?
- A. Encourage them to initiate daily rituals.
- B. Reinforce the reality of their financial situation.
- C. Direct them to drink a glass of red wine at bedtime.
- D. Teach them to limit sugar and caffeine intake.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Teaching the individual to limit sugar and caffeine intake is an appropriate intervention to reduce anxiety and improve sleep quality. Sugar and caffeine can exacerbate anxiety symptoms and disrupt sleep patterns. By reducing their intake, the individual may experience a decrease in anxiety levels and better sleep. Encouraging daily rituals, reinforcing financial realities, or suggesting alcohol consumption before bed are not evidence-based strategies for managing anxiety and sleeplessness.
3. The client has received 250 ml of 0.9% normal saline through the IV line in the last hour. The client is now tachypneic and has a pulse rate of 120 beats/minute, with a pulse volume of +4. In addition to reporting the assessment findings to the healthcare provider, what action should the nurse implement?
- A. Discontinue the IV and apply pressure at the site.
- B. Decrease the saline to a keep-open rate.
- C. Increase the rate of the current IV solution.
- D. Change the IV fluid to 0.45% normal saline at the same rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid overload with tachypnea and a high pulse rate. Decreasing the saline to a keep-open rate is appropriate to prevent further fluid volume excess. This action allows for IV access to be maintained while reducing the fluid administered, helping to manage the symptoms of fluid overload.
4. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?
- A. To reduce pain.
- B. To decrease anxiety.
- C. To reduce cardiac workload.
- D. To increase respiratory rate.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.
5. A 50-year-old man presents with severe epigastric pain radiating to his back, nausea, and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol use. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum amylase and lipase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Acute cholecystitis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Acute pancreatitis
- D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's history of heavy alcohol use, severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, nausea, vomiting, and elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are classic signs of acute pancreatitis. Alcohol consumption is a common predisposing factor for pancreatitis, leading to inflammation of the pancreas. The clinical presentation, along with the laboratory findings, strongly support the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis in this patient.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access