Nursing Elites

1. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?

• A. Upper endoscopy
• B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
• C. Barium swallow
• D. Esophageal manometry

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Use oxygen continuously, even while sleeping.
• B. Adjust the oxygen flow rate to 5 liters per minute if short of breath.
• C. Report any signs of difficulty breathing immediately.
• D. Take off the oxygen while eating or drinking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy is to use oxygen continuously, even while sleeping. This is important to ensure adequate oxygenation and optimal respiratory function for clients with COPD. Continuous oxygen therapy helps maintain oxygen levels during sleep, which is crucial for individuals with COPD who may experience nighttime hypoxemia. Therefore, advising the client to use oxygen continuously, even during sleep, is essential in managing COPD and preventing complications associated with oxygen deprivation.

3. A 36-year-old woman complains of reflux symptoms and intermittent diarrhea. The diagnosis of gastrinoma is suspected so a fasting serum gastrin is obtained and found to be 280 pg/mL (normal <115 pg/mL). An abdominal CT is negative. What would you do now?

• A. Refer her for an exploratory laparotomy
• B. Measure serum gastrin in response to secretin infusion
• C. Treat her for H. pylori
• D. Obtain a dedicated small bowel series

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The next step after finding an elevated fasting serum gastrin level is to perform a secretin stimulation test. This test helps differentiate between gastrinoma and other causes of elevated gastrin levels, such as proton-pump inhibitor therapy or H2 antagonists. In gastrinoma, the serum gastrin level should further increase after secretin infusion, while in other conditions, the levels would not significantly rise. Exploratory laparotomy would be premature without confirming the diagnosis. Treating for H. pylori is not indicated as the diagnosis of gastrinoma is under consideration and not Helicobacter pylori infection. A dedicated small bowel series is not the next appropriate step in this scenario.

4. A client is being treated with an antidepressant for major depressive disorder. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I know it may take several weeks before I start feeling better.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I will stop taking the medication as soon as I feel better.
• D. I should take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stopping antidepressants abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and complete the full course of medication even if they start feeling better to prevent potential relapse or withdrawal effects.

5. A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except

• A. H. pylori has been associated with gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
• B. Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment
• C. Triple drug therapy has been shown to be more effective than dual drug therapy
• D. If her H. pylori IgG antibody titer was elevated prior to therapy, it can be used to monitor treatment efficacy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.

Similar Questions