Nursing Elites

1. A 56-year-old white male complains of intermittent dysphagia for the past three months, particularly with the ingestion of meat. He has no difficulties swallowing liquids. He has no history of smoking, uses no medications, and has had no weight loss. What test would be best to evaluate him?

• A. Upper endoscopy
• B. Chest/abdominal CT scan
• C. Barium swallow
• D. Esophageal manometry

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient presenting with intermittent dysphagia, especially with solids like meat, a barium swallow is the most appropriate initial test. In this case, the classic presentation suggests a Schatzki’s ring, which is best visualized through a barium study. Upper endoscopy may not always visualize Schatzki’s rings effectively. Chest/abdominal CT scan and esophageal manometry are not the preferred tests for diagnosing Schatzki’s rings. Treatment for Schatzki’s rings often involves bougie dilatation, and no further therapy may be necessary.

2. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing severe pain. Which medication is likely to be prescribed?

• A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
• B. Ibuprofen (Advil)
• C. Methotrexate (Rheumatrex)
• D. Prednisone (Deltasone)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methotrexate is commonly prescribed for rheumatoid arthritis to reduce inflammation and slow disease progression. It is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that helps control symptoms and prevent joint damage in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. While acetaminophen and ibuprofen are used for pain relief, they are not typically prescribed to address the underlying inflammation and disease progression associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Prednisone may be used for short-term symptom relief or during disease flares, but it is not a first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis.

3. A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, polyuria, and polydipsia. Laboratory tests reveal hyperglycemia and ketonuria. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
• B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• C. Diabetes insipidus
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of symptoms including fatigue, polyuria, polydipsia, along with laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria strongly suggest type 1 diabetes mellitus. In type 1 diabetes mellitus, there is a deficiency of insulin leading to high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia) and the breakdown of fats producing ketones, causing ketonuria. Type 2 diabetes mellitus typically presents differently and is more common in older individuals. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, distinct from the provided clinical scenario. Hyperthyroidism may present with some overlapping symptoms like fatigue, but it does not account for the specific laboratory findings of hyperglycemia and ketonuria seen in this case.

4. What is the primary cause of jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis?

• A. Decreased bile production
• B. Increased bilirubin levels
• C. Hepatic inflammation
• D. Portal hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jaundice in a client with liver cirrhosis is primarily caused by increased bilirubin levels. In liver cirrhosis, impaired liver function leads to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, resulting in jaundice. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment produced from the breakdown of red blood cells, and its elevation is a common manifestation of liver dysfunction. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While decreased bile production can contribute to jaundice, in liver cirrhosis, the key factor is the buildup of bilirubin due to liver dysfunction, not a decrease in bile production. Hepatic inflammation and portal hypertension are associated with liver cirrhosis but are not the primary causes of jaundice in this context.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
• B. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• C. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal to enhance absorption.
• D. Skip a dose if you feel dizzy or lightheaded.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed digoxin is to take their pulse before each dose and hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. This is crucial to prevent digoxin toxicity, as digoxin can cause adverse effects when the pulse rate is too low. Monitoring the pulse regularly ensures safety and appropriate management of the medication.

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