Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer a diuretic.
• D. Continue to monitor the CVP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CVP of 15 mm Hg is higher than normal, indicating possible fluid overload or heart failure, which needs immediate attention. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial as they can evaluate the client's condition, order appropriate interventions, and prevent potential complications.

2. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Bounding erratic pulse.
• B. Regularly irregular pulse.
• C. Thready irregular pulse.
• D. No palpable pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.

3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Muscle rigidity.
• D. Drowsiness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity is a crucial finding to report immediately as it can indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. NMS is characterized by muscle rigidity, high fever, autonomic dysfunction, and altered mental status. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential to prevent serious complications or death.

4. Because the census is currently low in the Obstetrics (OB) unit, one of the nurses is sent to work on a medical-surgical unit for the day, or until the OB unit becomes busy. Which client assessment is best for the charge nurse to assign to the OB nurse?

• A. An adult who had a colon resection yesterday and has an IV.
• B. An older adult who has a fever of unknown origin.
• C. A woman who had an acute brain attack (stroke, CVA) 6 hours ago.
• D. A teenager with a femoral fracture who is in traction.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The OB nurse is most experienced in postoperative care, making the client who had a recent colon resection the most suitable assignment. This client would require care that aligns closely with the expertise and skills of the OB nurse, ensuring optimal patient outcomes and effective utilization of nursing resources.

5. A client with severe anemia is being treated with a blood transfusion. Which assessment finding indicates a transfusion reaction?

• A. Elevated blood pressure.
• B. Fever and chills.
• C. Increased urine output.
• D. Bradycardia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fever and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction. These symptoms indicate that the body is having a response to the transfused blood, possibly due to incompatibility or an immune reaction. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is not a typical sign of a transfusion reaction. Increased urine output (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic signs of a transfusion reaction. It is crucial to recognize symptoms of a transfusion reaction promptly to prevent further complications and ensure appropriate management.

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