Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer a diuretic.
• D. Continue to monitor the CVP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CVP of 15 mm Hg is higher than normal, indicating possible fluid overload or heart failure, which needs immediate attention. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial as they can evaluate the client's condition, order appropriate interventions, and prevent potential complications.

2. A client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Fruity breath odor.
• B. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL.
• C. Deep, rapid respirations.
• D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul breathing). This is a sign of severe acidosis commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and requires immediate intervention. Kussmaul breathing helps to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by blowing off carbon dioxide. Prompt intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration and potential respiratory failure. Fruity breath odor (Choice A) is a classic sign of DKA but does not require immediate intervention. While a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL (Choice B) is high, it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most critical finding that requires immediate intervention in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril (Prinivil). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Dry cough.
• B. Weight gain.
• C. Tachycardia.
• D. Hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs, leading to irritation and subsequent cough. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can affect adherence to the medication regimen. Weight gain, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect.

4. Why is morphine administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. To reduce pain.
• B. To decrease anxiety.
• C. To reduce cardiac workload.
• D. To increase respiratory rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine is administered to a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI) primarily to reduce cardiac workload. By reducing preload and afterload, morphine helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle. This decrease in workload on the heart can alleviate symptoms and reduce strain on the heart muscle during an MI. Choices A and B are incorrect because the primary goal of administering morphine in this context is not pain relief or anxiety reduction. Choice D is incorrect as morphine does not aim to increase respiratory rate but rather to address the cardiac workload.

5. When should the charge nurse intervene based on the observed behavior?

• A. Two staff members are overheard talking about a cure for AIDS outside a client's room.
• B. A hospital transporter is reading a client's history and physical while waiting for an elevator.
• C. A UAP tells a client, 'It's hard to quit drinking but Alcoholics Anonymous helped me.'
• D. Two visitors are discussing a hospitalized client's history of drug abuse in the visitor's lounge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The hospital transporter reading a client's history and physical without a legitimate need violates patient confidentiality. This behavior requires immediate intervention to protect the client's privacy and confidentiality rights.

Similar Questions