Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer a diuretic.
• D. Continue to monitor the CVP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CVP of 15 mm Hg is higher than normal, indicating possible fluid overload or heart failure, which needs immediate attention. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial as they can evaluate the client's condition, order appropriate interventions, and prevent potential complications.

2. A 70-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Gallstones
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Pancreatic cancer
• D. Primary biliary cirrhosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of a 70-year-old man with weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels is highly suggestive of pancreatic cancer. This clinical scenario, known as Courvoisier's sign, points towards a pancreatic malignancy due to biliary obstruction. Gallstones could cause similar symptoms but would typically not present with a palpable mass. Hepatitis usually does not present with a palpable mass and would have different laboratory findings. Primary biliary cirrhosis typically presents differently with chronic cholestasis without the presence of a palpable mass or a pancreatic lesion.

3. A 35-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Laboratory tests reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Cushing's syndrome
• B. Addison's disease
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Pheochromocytoma

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The clinical presentation of a 35-year-old man with fatigue, weight loss, hyperpigmentation of the skin, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and low cortisol levels is classic for Addison's disease. These findings are consistent with primary adrenal insufficiency, where the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate cortisol. In Addison's disease, the adrenal cortex is damaged, leading to decreased cortisol production and elevated levels of ACTH. This results in symptoms such as fatigue, weight loss, and hyperpigmentation due to increased ACTH production stimulating melanocytes. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are common electrolyte abnormalities seen in Addison's disease due to aldosterone deficiency. Therefore, the correct diagnosis in this case is Addison's disease.

4. A client who is 2 days postoperative reports severe pain and swelling in the right leg. The nurse notes that the leg is warm and red. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the affected leg.
• B. Elevate the leg on pillows.
• C. Measure the circumference of the leg.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse's priority action in this situation is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. These symptoms, including severe pain, swelling, warmth, and redness in the leg, are indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a potentially serious condition. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate diagnostic tests and interventions to prevent complications associated with DVT. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) could worsen the condition by increasing blood flow. Elevating the leg (Choice B) might be contraindicated in DVT as it can dislodge a clot. Measuring the circumference of the leg (Choice C) is not the priority at this time compared to promptly involving the healthcare provider.

5. While assessing a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse notes her deep tendon reflexes are 1+, respiratory rate is 12 breaths/minute, urinary output is 90 ml in 4 hours, and magnesium sulfate level is 9 mg/dl. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these findings?

• A. Continue the magnesium sulfate infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the magnesium sulfate infusion by one-half.
• C. Stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately.
• D. Administer calcium gluconate immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should stop the magnesium sulfate infusion immediately in a client with preeclampsia exhibiting diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, and low urinary output, which indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. This action is crucial to prevent further complications and adverse effects on the client.

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