Nursing Elites

1. A client admitted with a diagnosis of sepsis has a central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 ml.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer a diuretic.
• D. Continue to monitor the CVP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A CVP of 15 mm Hg is higher than normal, indicating possible fluid overload or heart failure, which needs immediate attention. Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial as they can evaluate the client's condition, order appropriate interventions, and prevent potential complications.

2. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority nursing intervention for this client?

• A. Administering oral pancreatic enzymes
• B. Encouraging a high-protein diet
• C. Maintaining NPO status and administering IV fluids
• D. Providing a low-fat diet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with acute pancreatitis is to maintain NPO (nothing by mouth) status and administer IV fluids. This approach helps rest the pancreas, decrease pancreatic stimulation, and prevent further exacerbation of the condition. By withholding oral intake and providing IV fluids, the pancreas is given the opportunity to recover and inflammation can be reduced. This intervention is crucial in the acute phase of pancreatitis to support the healing process and prevent complications.

3. A patient with severe pain is prescribed morphine sulfate. What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed morphine sulfate, the most critical side effect for the nurse to monitor is respiratory depression. Morphine can suppress the respiratory drive, leading to inadequate ventilation and potentially life-threatening consequences. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status closely is essential to promptly identify and manage any signs of respiratory depression.

4. A patient with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa. What dietary modification should the nurse suggest to the patient?

• A. Increase intake of vitamin C.
• B. Limit foods high in protein.
• C. Avoid foods rich in fiber.
• D. Increase sodium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit foods high in protein. Patients taking levodopa should restrict their intake of protein-rich foods because protein can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Levodopa competes with dietary proteins for absorption in the small intestine, potentially reducing the effectiveness of the medication. Therefore, by reducing protein intake, the patient can enhance the absorption and therapeutic effects of levodopa. Increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary for patients prescribed with levodopa. Avoiding foods rich in fiber or increasing sodium intake are not directly related to optimizing levodopa therapy and might not benefit the patient's condition.

5. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

• A. A dedicated small bowel series has a high likelihood of being positive
• B. 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor
• C. The patient should have a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion to identify the source of blood loss
• D. Hormonal therapy has been shown to be effective in decreasing blood loss due to arteriovenous malformations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

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