the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of high risk for ineffective airway clearance for a client with myasthenia gravis what is the most likely eti
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1. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In heart failure, fluid retention is a concern. Furosemide helps manage this by promoting diuresis. Instructing the client to report weight gain exceeding 2 pounds in a day is crucial as it can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and complications.

3. A client who has been receiving treatment for depression with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports experiencing decreased libido. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client reports experiencing decreased libido while taking SSRIs, it is important for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider to discuss potential medication adjustments. This side effect can significantly impact a client's quality of life, and addressing it promptly by involving the healthcare provider is crucial in providing holistic care. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the issue of decreased libido caused by SSRIs. Simply waiting for improvement over time, altering the administration of medication with food, or increasing exercise are not appropriate strategies for managing this specific side effect.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.

5. The healthcare provider is planning care for a non-potty-trained child with nephrotic syndrome. Which intervention provides the best means of determining fluid retention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weighing is the most accurate method to monitor fluid retention in a child with nephrotic syndrome. Changes in weight can indicate fluid retention or loss, which is crucial in managing nephrotic syndrome. Observing for pitting edema and measuring abdominal girth are also important assessments, but daily weighing provides more immediate and precise information about fluid status.

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