the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of high risk for ineffective airway clearance for a client with myasthenia gravis what is the most likely eti
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1. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

2. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.

3. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

4. A client in labor states, 'I think my water just broke!' The nurse notes that the umbilical cord is on the perineum. What action should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to place the client in Trendelenburg position. This position helps alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, preventing compression and ensuring continued blood flow to the fetus. Administering oxygen, notifying the operating room team, or administering a fluid bolus are not the initial priority actions in a cord prolapse situation.

5. The client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), and the nurse plans to educate them about its purpose. Which statement should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clozapine (Clozaril) is an antipsychotic medication that is known to improve cognitive function and thought clarity in individuals with schizophrenia. It primarily helps in managing symptoms related to thought processes rather than focusing on community function, coping with symptoms, or grooming and hygiene.

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