Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

• A. Pain during coughing.
• B. Diminished cough effort.
• C. Thick, dry secretions.
• D. Excessive inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

2. A 56-year-old woman presents to discuss the results of her recent upper endoscopy. She was having some mild abdominal pain, so she underwent the procedure, which revealed an ulcer in the antrum of the stomach. Biopsy of the lesion revealed the presence of H. pylori. All of the following statements regarding her condition are correct except

• A. H. pylori has been associated with gastric MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)
• B. Reinfection is rare despite adequate treatment
• C. Triple drug therapy has been shown to be more effective than dual drug therapy
• D. If her H. pylori IgG antibody titer was elevated prior to therapy, it can be used to monitor treatment efficacy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: H. pylori is associated with a majority of peptic ulcer disease cases and has links to gastric MALT and adenocarcinoma. Triple drug therapy is more effective than dual therapy. Reinfection after adequate treatment is rare. While urea breath testing is a better diagnostic tool, quantitative serology can monitor treatment efficacy. A 30% decrease in IgG titer should occur post-therapy, indicating effectiveness.

3. When providing dietary instructions to a client with cirrhosis, which dietary restriction is important for the nurse to emphasize?

• A. Low-protein diet
• B. Low-sodium diet
• C. High-fiber diet
• D. High-calcium diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low-sodium diet is crucial for clients with cirrhosis to manage fluid retention and ascites. Excessive sodium intake can worsen fluid accumulation in the body, leading to complications. By restricting sodium intake, the client can help reduce fluid retention and maintain better overall health. Therefore, emphasizing a low-sodium diet is essential in the dietary management of cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not the primary focus for cirrhosis management. While protein restriction may be necessary in advanced stages of liver disease, it is not the main dietary concern in cirrhosis. High-fiber and high-calcium diets are generally beneficial for overall health but are not specifically emphasized in cirrhosis management.

4. For a patient with asthma, what is the primary purpose of prescribing salmeterol?

• A. Relieve acute bronchospasm
• B. Prevent asthma attacks
• C. Suppress cough
• D. Thin respiratory secretions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Salmeterol is classified as a long-acting beta2-agonist, which is used to prevent asthma attacks by providing extended bronchodilation. It is not typically used for immediate relief of acute bronchospasm or for suppressing cough. Additionally, salmeterol does not have the primary purpose of thinning respiratory secretions.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The amount available is digoxin 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To achieve the prescribed dose of 0.25 mg, the healthcare professional should administer 2 tablets of 0.125 mg each, totaling 0.25 mg.

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