Nursing Elites

1. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse provide regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
• C. Take the medication with meals.
• D. Increase intake of simple carbohydrates.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a patient prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects commonly associated with metformin. Patients should also be educated about the signs of lactic acidosis, a rare but serious side effect associated with metformin use.

2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer 10 units of insulin.
• C. Give the client a high-protein snack.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for a client presenting with confusion, sweating, and palpitations, suggestive of hypoglycemia, is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step helps to confirm if the symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and guides appropriate interventions. Administering insulin without knowing the current blood glucose level can be dangerous and is not recommended as the initial step. Offering a high-protein snack may be necessary after confirming hypoglycemia, but checking the blood glucose level takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure is not the priority in this situation; addressing hypoglycemia is the immediate concern.

3. A client with coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL.
• B. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) of 200 mg/dL.
• C. Triglycerides of 150 mg/dL.
• D. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 40 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An LDL level of 200 mg/dL is significantly elevated and requires immediate intervention to reduce the risk of cardiovascular events in a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). High LDL levels contribute to the development and progression of atherosclerosis, which can lead to complications like heart attacks and strokes. Lowering LDL levels is a key goal in managing CAD and preventing further cardiovascular damage. Total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL, triglycerides of 150 mg/dL, and HDL of 40 mg/dL are within acceptable ranges and do not pose an immediate risk that necessitates urgent intervention.

4. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Hemoglobin level.
• D. White blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is monitored to ensure therapeutic levels of warfarin and prevent bleeding complications.

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