Nursing Elites

1. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.

2. A 62-year-old male client with a history of coronary artery disease complains that his heart is 'racing' and he often feels dizzy. His blood pressure is 110/60, and he uses portable oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. Based on the rhythm shown, which prescription should the nurse administer?

• A. Give magnesium via secondary infusion.
• B. Initiate IV heparin solution as per protocol.
• C. Administer IV adenosine (Adenocard).
• D. Prepare for synchronized cardioversion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering IV adenosine is the appropriate intervention for a client with symptomatic tachycardia to restore normal sinus rhythm. Adenosine is a medication used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by interrupting the reentry pathways through the AV node and restoring normal sinus rhythm. It is a rapid-acting medication given as a rapid IV push followed by a saline flush. The dose is typically administered in a healthcare setting where cardiac monitoring is available due to its potential to cause transient asystole.

3. A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Aspirin.
• B. Allopurinol (Zyloprim).
• C. Colchicine.
• D. Probenecid (Benemid).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute gout attack, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe colchicine. Colchicine is commonly used to treat acute gout attacks because it works by reducing inflammation and alleviating pain associated with the condition. It is important to note that aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment and may even exacerbate the symptoms. Allopurinol and probenecid are medications used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels in the blood, but they are not typically prescribed during an acute attack. Therefore, colchicine is the most appropriate medication for managing an acute gout attack.

4. A client who participates in a health maintenance organization (HMO) needs a bone marrow transplant for the treatment of breast cancer. The client tells the nurse that she is concerned that her HMO may deny her claim. What action by the nurse best addresses the client's need at this time?

• A. Have the client's healthcare provider write a letter to the HMO explaining the need for the transplant.
• B. Help the client place a call to the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage.
• C. Encourage the client to contact a lawyer to file a lawsuit against the HMO if necessary.
• D. Have the social worker contact the state board of insurance to register a complaint against the HMO.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best action for the nurse to take in this situation is to help the client directly contact the HMO to seek information about limitations of coverage. This approach addresses the client's immediate concerns and clarifies the situation, enabling the client to understand the coverage and potential outcomes regarding the bone marrow transplant. Choice A is not the best option as having the healthcare provider write a letter may not provide immediate clarification on coverage. Choice C is inappropriate as legal action should be considered as a last resort, and choice D involving the state board of insurance is not necessary at this initial stage of addressing the client's concern.

5. A 68-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, and coronary artery disease (s/p coronary artery bypass graft two years ago) presents to the emergency room with fevers and left-sided abdominal pain. His physical examination reveals a temperature of 101.5°F, pulse 96, and blood pressure of 135/80. His abdomen is soft with moderate left lower quadrant tenderness. There is no rebound or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. A CT scan is done which reveals inflammation around an area of the left colon. The next step in his workup/management should be

• A. Antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
• B. Referral for urgent colonoscopy
• C. Referral to a surgeon for immediate hemicolectomy
• D. Barium enema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's presentation is consistent with diverticulitis without evidence of perforation or abscess formation on CT scan. During acute infections, procedures like barium enema and colonoscopy should be avoided to prevent the risk of perforation. Urgent surgery is not indicated initially. The appropriate next step is to start antibiotic therapy aimed at gram-negative aerobes and anaerobes, such as ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, which are the initial treatment of choice for diverticulitis.

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