Nursing Elites

1. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is an important side effect for the healthcare provider to monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known to cause significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome. It is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients for these side effects to prevent complications and provide appropriate interventions.

2. A client is being educated about type 2 diabetes. The educator can confirm that the client understands the primary treatment for type 2 diabetes when the client states what?

• A. I read that a pancreas transplant will provide a cure for my diabetes.
• B. I will take my oral antidiabetic agents when my morning blood sugar is high.
• C. I will make sure to follow the weight loss plan designed by the dietitian.
• D. I will make sure I call the diabetes educator when I have questions about my insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary treatment approach for managing type 2 diabetes includes following a weight loss plan. Weight loss can improve insulin sensitivity and glycemic control in individuals with type 2 diabetes. Making dietary changes and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial components of managing this condition.

3. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

• A. Diverticular bleed
• B. Duodenal ulcer
• C. Inflammatory bowel disease
• D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which assessment finding requires the healthcare provider's immediate action?

• A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes.
• B. Ascending weakness.
• C. New onset of confusion.
• D. Decreased vital capacity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Decreased vital capacity is the most critical assessment finding in a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome as it indicates respiratory compromise. This requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate ventilation and prevent respiratory failure, a common complication of this syndrome. Monitoring and maintaining respiratory function are vital in these clients to prevent complications such as respiratory distress, hypoxia, and respiratory failure. Loss of deep tendon reflexes and ascending weakness are typical manifestations of Guillain-Barré syndrome but do not require immediate action compared to compromised respiratory function. New onset of confusion may be a concern but is not as immediately life-threatening as decreased vital capacity.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Raynaud's phenomenon. Which finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Thickened and hardened skin.
• B. Painless ulcers on the fingertips.
• C. Episodes of cyanosis and pallor in the fingers.
• D. Red, scaly patches on the hands.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raynaud's phenomenon is characterized by vasospasm, leading to episodes of cyanosis (bluish discoloration) and pallor (pale color) in the fingers or toes, often triggered by cold temperatures or stress. This occurs due to the reduced blood flow during vasospastic episodes, causing the discoloration. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings associated with other conditions and are not typical of Raynaud's phenomenon.

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