Nursing Elites

1. Which signs or symptoms are characteristic of an adult client diagnosed with Cushing's syndrome?

• A. Husky voice and complaints of hoarseness.
• B. Warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin.
• C. Visible swelling of the neck, with no pain.
• D. Central-type obesity, with thin extremities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cushing's syndrome is characterized by central-type obesity with thin extremities, often referred to as 'truncal obesity.' This pattern of weight distribution is a key feature of Cushing's syndrome due to excessive cortisol levels, leading to fat accumulation in the face, neck, and abdomen, while the extremities remain relatively thin. The other options listed, such as husky voice, hoarseness, warm, soft, moist, salmon-colored skin, and visible swelling of the neck, are not typical findings associated with Cushing's syndrome.

2. The nurse is planning care for a 16-year-old with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA). The nurse includes activities to strengthen and mobilize the joints and surrounding muscles. Which physical therapy regimen should the nurse encourage the adolescent to implement?

• A. Exercise in a swimming pool.
• B. Splint affected joints during activity.
• C. Perform passive range of motion exercises twice daily.
• D. Begin a training program of lifting weights and running.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in a swimming pool is beneficial for adolescents with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis as it reduces stress on the joints while allowing movement and strengthening. The buoyancy of water supports the body, making exercises easier and less painful, while also providing resistance to strengthen muscles. This form of exercise can help improve joint mobility and overall function without causing excessive strain on the joints. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because splinting affected joints, performing passive range of motion exercises, or beginning a training program of lifting weights and running can potentially exacerbate symptoms and cause additional stress on the joints, which is not recommended for individuals with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. No bruit or thrill over the AV fistula.
• B. Redness at the site of the AV fistula.
• C. Client's complaint of pain at the AV fistula site.
• D. Swelling of the hand on the side of the AV fistula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a chronic kidney disease who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis, the absence of a bruit (a humming sound) or thrill (vibratory sensation) over the AV fistula indicates a potential occlusion. This finding suggests inadequate blood flow through the AV fistula, which is a critical issue requiring immediate intervention to prevent complications such as thrombosis or clot formation. Reporting this absence of bruit or thrill promptly to the healthcare provider is essential to ensure timely assessment and management to maintain vascular access for hemodialysis.

4. The client is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril), and the nurse plans to educate them about its purpose. Which statement should the nurse provide?

• A. It will help you function better in the community.
• B. The medication will help you think more clearly.
• C. You will be able to cope with your symptoms.
• D. It will improve your grooming and hygiene.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clozapine (Clozaril) is an antipsychotic medication that is known to improve cognitive function and thought clarity in individuals with schizophrenia. It primarily helps in managing symptoms related to thought processes rather than focusing on community function, coping with symptoms, or grooming and hygiene.

5. The client is receiving intravenous vancomycin. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Red man syndrome.
• B. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• C. Mild itching at the IV site.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Red man syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening reaction to vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. Immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications such as anaphylaxis. Therefore, the nurse should report this finding immediately to ensure prompt treatment and prevent serious adverse effects.

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